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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
2 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
3 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
4 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
5 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
6 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
7 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
8 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
9 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a modern transport aircraft will radar returns not be shown?
10 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
11 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
12 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
13 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
14 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
15 - On which displays can the pilot read the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB directly, without calculation?
16 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
17 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
18 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
19 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
20 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
question nav6.webp
21 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
22 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
23 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
24 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
25 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
26 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
27 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
28 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
29 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
30 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
31 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
32 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
33 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
34 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
35 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
36 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
37 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
38 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
39 - Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
40 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
41 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
42 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
43 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to:
44 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
45 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
46 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
47 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
48 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
49 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
50 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
51 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
52 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
53 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
54 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
55 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
56 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
57 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
58 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
59 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
60 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
61 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
62 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
63 - What is the aircraft track?
question nav2.webp
64 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
65 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
66 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
67 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
68 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
69 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
70 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
71 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
72 - TVOR is a
73 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
74 - In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
75 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
76 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
77 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
78 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
79 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
80 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
81 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
82 - What is a VDF referenced to?
83 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
84 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
85 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
86 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
87 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
88 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
89 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
90 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
91 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
92 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
93 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
94 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
95 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
96 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
97 - Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
98 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
99 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
100 - The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 040°. On the Airborne Weather Radar display the relative bearing of and the distance to the most southerly part of Lands End (approximate position: 50°03'N, 005°40'W) are 030°R and 80 NM. What is the position of the aircraft based on these observations? The slant range correction and the map convergency between aircraft position and lands end may be neglected.
question nav5.webp
101 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
102 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
103 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
104 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
105 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
106 - Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?
107 - In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
108 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
109 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
110 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
111 - An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
112 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
113 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
114 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
115 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
116 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
117 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
118 - How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?
119 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
120 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
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