Test 120 domande esame ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

Home > Simulazione d'esame > Quiz ATPL - Test di esame Airline Transport Pilot license - Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ? Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight Squawk mode A code 7500 Divert to the alternate airport

2 - The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour? Sixteen fifteen Four fifteen P.M. Four fifteen in the afternoon One six one five

3 - If the pilot increases the reference pressure using the sub-scale setting knob, the altitude indicated by the altimeter: Decreases if QNH > 1013 hPa. Decreases if QNH < 1013 hPa. Increases. Decreases.

4 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 10 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes

5 - The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.What is the QFF? Less than 1022 hPa More than 1022 hPa 1022 hPa It is not possible to give a definitive answer

6 - Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission: Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7 Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight check

7 - Given:Runway direction 305°(M), Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt.Calculate the cross-wind component? 24 kt 21 kt 18 kt 27 kt

8 - Low speed pitch up is caused by the: Spanwise flow on a swept back wing Mach trim system Wing tip vortex Spanwise flow on a swept forward wing

9 - The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: 2h 49min 2h 52min 2h 04min 1h 35min

10 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to: LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

11 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent': Cancel my last message Disregard My last transmission is cancelled Forget it

12 - What does the word 'Monitor' mean: Wait and I will call you Establish radio contact with... Listen out on (frequency). Examine a system or procedure

13 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Extinguish fire only. Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning. Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden. You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

14 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions? Approved Go ahead I say again: proceed Cleared

15 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...': QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016 QNH 1017, negative 1016 QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016 QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

16 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS? 24 30 12 6

17 - A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of illusion could the pilot get? The source of light stands still The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed The source of light moves away from him The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing

18 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4:Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.

Magnetic course 282°, distance 112 KM Magnetic course 092°, distance 82 NM Magnetic course 091°, distance 54 NM Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM

19 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.

20 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus Ramp (Block) Fuel Mass. Trip Fuel Mass. Take-off Fuel Mass. Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

21 - The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:1. the duration of the G-forces2. the onset rate of the G-forces3. the magnitude of the G-forces4. the direction of the G-forces. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false

22 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:

Maximum specific range Critical angle of attack Maximum thrust Maximum endurance

23 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 2200 l. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is: 1738 kg 1798 kg 2098 kg 2785 kg

24 - InterceptionAn aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A Code 7600 Code 7500 Code 7000 Code 7700

25 - A class A fire is a fire of: Liquid or liquefiable solid Electrical origin Solid material, generally of organic nature Metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

26 - With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is: 2 3 6 1

27 - Search and RescueThe colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is: Red Black Blue Yellow

28 - The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which: The maximum operating temperature is reached. A shock-wave appears on the upper surface. Sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil. A 'supersonic bell' appears on the upper surface.

29 - Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct? Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed

30 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?

NDB VOR/DME TACAN VOR

31 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.

32 - Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights showing green or white colours. Fixed lights green colours.

33 - The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kgLanding runway limitation: 180 000 kgPlanned fuel consumption: 11 500 kgFuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg Knowing that:Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is: 54 000 kg 61 500 kg 55 500 kg 55 000 kg

34 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to: Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator The Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful interference The Authority of the State of the operator only The local authority only

35 - Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are: Visibility and distance Distance from the edge of the taxiway and taxi lighting Relative movement and cockpit height above the ground Distance from the edge of the taxiway and cockpit lighting

36 - The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) regulates: Motor programmes and reflexes. Sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaption Syndrome. Reflexes, body temperature and reasoning. Reflexes only.

37 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is: Omnidirectional A beam rotating at 30 Hz A cardioid balanced at 30 Hz Bi-lobal circular

38 - An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: 6700 7700 7500 7600

39 - An electrically activated and operated fuel valve is called a/an: Pcu Valve. Electronic valve. Solenoid valve. Check Valve.

40 - The purpose of the primary stops in a flying control system is to: Prevent Damage To The System When The Helicopter Is Parked In High Winds. Act As A Stop In Case Of Vibration Of The Controls. Bring The Main And Tail Rotors To Rest As Soon As Possible After Shut-down. Restrict the movement of the controls within the correct range.

41 - Glaucoma is: High intra-ocular pressure Disturbed night vision Disturbed adaptation Disturbed colour vision

42 - The true course is 042°.The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:

040° 058° 044° 052°

43 - The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm? 416.0 kg 101.6 kg 41.6 kg 1015.6 kg

44 - What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie

45 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, Until their journey can be continued If is requested by an individual passenger And arrange for them to return to their country of origin During a period of investigation

46 - The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with: 1 - pitch attitude2 - accelerations3 - fuel temperatureThe combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3. 1, 2. 1, 2, 3. 2, 3.

47 - An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer:WPT 1: 60°N 030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°WWhen 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be: 60°05.7'N 60°11.0'N 59°49.0'N 60°00.0'N

48 - The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is: 0.50 0.40 0.64 0.75

49 - Once a pilot has constructed a mental model he/she tends to: Give undue weight to information that confirms the model Alter that model unnecessarily frequently Give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information Give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

50 - At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of 30-40 minutes and 4 km 5-15 minutes and 8 km 1-5 minutes and 4 km 5-10 minutes and 12 km

51 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is: Thrust x sin(angle of descent) Weight x sin(angle of descent) Weight x cos(angle of descent) Thrust x cos(angle of descent)

52 - During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a Nose down attitude. Nose up followed by a nose down attitude. Constant attitude. Nose up attitude.

53 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when: Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

54 - The air mass affecting position "C" is most likely to be:

Continental tropical Maritime tropical Continental polar Maritime polar

55 - Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)

Cutting wind. Flat pressure pattern. Warm south wind condition (Foehn). West wind condition.

56 - What does the word 'report' mean? Pass me the following information Examine a system or procedure Say again Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received

57 - The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet: 1 - throughout the operating range of the engine 2 - for ground starts 3 - for accelerations 4 - for in-flight relights 5 - during turbulence in flight 6 - in heavy precipitation or in icing conditions The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 6 2, 3, 2004 3 And 6 Only

58 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. Lower Higher Depending on density altitude and mass Depending on the OAT and net mass

59 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 340 NM True track 320W/V 160/40 TAS 110 ktWhat is the distance of the PET from the departure point? 228 NM 112 NM 219 NM 121 NM

60 - During a flight the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel? 12 minutes. 4 minutes. 44 minutes. 63 minutes.

61 - An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is A NOTAM A SIGMET information An En-Route Meteo Report An AIRMET information

62 - An engine low oil pressure light has just illuminated. The pilot feels some stress building up. He should: Persuade himself that this is a false alarm to reduce his stress Divert immediately to the nearest airfield Use humour to show that he is not concerned Control his stress by following appropriate procedures (e.g. checklists)

63 - The most important problem of ice accretion on a transport aeroplane during flight is: Increase in weight Increase in drag Reduction in CLmax Blocking of control surfaces

64 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz? 800 m 8 m 80 m The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna

65 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant): Does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb Has no effect on rate of climb Decreases angle and rate of climb Improves angle and rate of climb

66 - Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ? Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature. Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade. Is independent of altitude. Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

67 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties Screen height reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway

68 - My message will be more effective and understandable if I: Use the words twice method Stress the end of message Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level Stress every beginning of message

69 - Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system: Is Achieved By Adjusting The Neutral Point Of The Flight Control Actuator. Is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system. Is Not Possible. Is Not Necessary.

70 - Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of: 1300 Hz 400 Hz 3000 Hz 190 NM

71 - The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass Differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass. Are the same value. Differ by the mass of usable fuel. Differ by the value of the traffic load mass.

72 - The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in Icy clouds at high levels. Unstable clouds at medium levels. Supercooled precipitation. Zones where the air temperature is below -15°

73 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually: + or - 40° of the runway centre-line + or - 30° of the runway centre-line + or - 60° of the runway centre-line + or - 50° of the runway centre-line

74 - A pilot becomes skilled when he / she: 1: trains or practises regularly2: knows how to manage himself / herself3: possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft4: knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected 1,2 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,4

75 - Given:The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48°50' E002°16.5'. What are the coordinates of the position directly on the opposite side of the earth? S48°50' E177°43.5' S48°50' W177°43.5' S41°10' E177°43.5' S41°10' W177°43.5'

76 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is: 108 to 111.95 MHz 108 to 117.95 MHz 108 to 135.95 MHz 118 to 135.95 MHz

77 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: -10°CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY: 30LWind: 180°/10 KTTake off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installedOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

4250 ft 3550 ft 3800 ft 4600 ft

78 - Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to such a hazard: Anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned Anticipating that the weather may deteriorate Anticipating the sequence of items on a check list. Mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated

79 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - E HI 2An aircraft has to fly on airways from SVEDA (56°10'N 012°34'E) to SKARA (58°23'N 013°15'E).Which of the following is the correct route?

SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UB44 SKA SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UR156 SKA UR1 HIL UV30 BTD UH42 SKA SVD UB45 LAV UR156 SKA

80 - Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm? In the wall of clouds around the eye. About 600 km away from the eye. In the centre of the eye. Anywhere in the eye.

81 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on: 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane Timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position

82 - From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere? SE N SW NE

83 - Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points: A. having the same longitude Having the same longitude With the same variation Of equal latitude Having the same elevation above sea level

84 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed The thrust is equal to minimum drag The thrust is equal to the maximum drag

85 - When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (e.g. after loss of cabin heating) his / her demand for oxygen will be: Unaffected Initially increased Raised leading to an increased tolerance to hypoxia Reduced giving a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes

86 - The centre of gravity of a body is that point Where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero Through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act Which is always used as datum when computing moments Where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero

87 - Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message? Negative Correct Disregard Correction

88 - Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport? Radar Approach Ground Delivery

89 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is: 5 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 1 minute

90 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: Always of a straight row of lights towards the runway Of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway Of an arbitrary amount of green lights

91 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 1950 NM GS Out 400 ktGS Home 300 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point? 223 min 167 min 125 min 29 min

92 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? Both will remain the same Both will decrease Both will increase Vx will decrease and Vy will increase

93 - What can be said concerning the following two statements?1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia.2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error. 1 is false, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is false 1 and 2 are both false 1 and 2 are both correct

94 - The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: 17 years of age 21 years of age 16 years of age 18 years of age

95 - Refer to CAP 697 Section 4 MRJT1 Figure 4.4Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ftFind: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time

2360 kg, 30 min 1180 kg, 30 min 1180 kg, 45 min 2360 kg, 01 h 00 min

96 - The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? 13 000 kg 13 230 kg 11 730 kg 14 730 kg

97 - What does the phrase 'Read back' mean: Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received Check and confirm with originator Did you correctly receive this message? Let me know that you have received and understood this message

98 - Generally what line lies closer to the poles? Rhumb line. Orthodromic line. Equator. The rhumb line or great circle depending on the chart used.

99 - At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C According to the Significant Weather Chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350? -50°C -54°C -58°C

100 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

22500 ft 24500 ft 29000 ft 27000 ft

101 - Assume a Mercator chart.The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1: 9 260 000.What is the latitude of A and B? 60° N or S 45° N or S 0° 30° N or S

102 - A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance? 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

103 - Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure: Missed approach Going around Overshooting Pulling up

104 - At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME station. At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM.Magnetic variation is zero.The true track and ground speed are: 090° - 232 kt 085° - 226 kt 088° - 232 kt 080° - 226 kt

105 - To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of: 3 points of support 4 point of support 1 point of support 2 points of support

106 - The Basic Empty Mass is 4960 kg, the Dry Operating Mass is 5220 kg and the Zero Fuel Mass is 6040 kg.If the take-off mass is 7630 kg the useful load is 1590 kg 2670 kg 820 kg 2410 kg

107 - Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 mDistance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m 63.4 % MAC 36.3 % MAC 23.1 % MAC 47.0 % MAC

108 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals It causes multipath propagation It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

109 - Given:Runway direction 083°(M) Surface W/V 035/35 KTCalculate the effective headwind component? 27 KT 24 KT 34 KT 31 KT

110 - combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2. 1,2,3. 2,3. 1,3.

111 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available? The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time

112 - Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G C, D, E, F, and G F only

113 - The effect on static stability of an aeroplane with a high wing as compared to a low wing is: A negative dihedral effect A positive dihedral effect Zero dihedral effect No effect as it is only used to improve aeroplane loading

114 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 hTAS: 115 ktGround Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? 73 NM 179 NM 255 NM 145 NM

115 - OPS 1 applies to: Aircraft used by police, customs and defence departments. Aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil aircraft. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.

116 - When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: Unaffected. Dependent on the degree of pressurisation. Increased. Decreased.

117 - When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the Sense of balance Cochlea Proprioceptive sensitivity Vision

118 - The difference between IAS and TAS will: Increase with decreasing temperature Increase with increasing air density Decrease with decreasing altitude Decrease with increasing speed

119 - Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: Urgency communication Distress traffic Technical difficulties Overload of the frequency

120 - The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of: The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.

Cambia Materia Cambia Domande

ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl