120 domande in 120 minuti atpl


1 - Cabin pressure is controlled by:
2 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR).Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
3 - Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
4 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
5 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
6 - The purpose of the contact breaker is to:
7 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
8 - A high aspect ratio wing produces:
9 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
10 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
11 - How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:
12 - When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical stress?
13 - On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
14 - The FMS Overfly function consists in:
15 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
16 - In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
17 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
18 - VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
19 - Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849. 1)Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
20 - What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?
21 - A barotrauma of the middle ear is:
22 - Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. This reaction
23 - An isohypse (contour)
24 - Which of the following statements is correct?
25 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM Endurance: 3,5 hTrue Track: 310 W/V: 270/30TAS: 120 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
26 - Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? 1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. 2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.
27 - When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
28 - Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport.
29 - The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is:
30 - The speed V1 is defined as:
31 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
32 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
33 - Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message?
34 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - PARIS CDG Plate 20-3: Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NM Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6.
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35 - In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
36 - Considering the sector from 10°N to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be
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37 - The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
38 - To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:
39 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
40 - Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that 1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
41 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
42 - Even at normal cabin altitudes (i.e. around 8000 ft) you can get severe abdominal pain and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks. The correct counter-measure is:
43 - The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult at rest is (systolic/diastolic):
44 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
45 - The centre of gravity is the
46 - My message will be more effective and understandable if I:
47 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar)?
48 - Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur?
49 - The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
50 - What is the Q-code for 'magnetic bearing from the station'?
51 - The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
52 - Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistant 4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
53 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
54 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
55 - What is the meaning of the phrase 'Radar service terminated'?
56 - What does the term 'way point' mean:
57 - The current in a DC circuit, according to Ohm's law, can be described as:
58 - Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
59 - What does 'Friction coefficient 45' in a runway report mean:
60 - What does the word 'correct' mean?
61 - What does 'SELCAL' mean:
62 - If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air:
63 - A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is approximately:
64 - In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
65 - The speed of sound is affected by the:
66 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
67 - For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is:
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68 - How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:
69 - Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while
70 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
71 - Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
72 - When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13: 'Time' is:
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73 - When a strongly swept back wing stalls and the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be a(n):
74 - Given:Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs Cargo 350 lbsRamp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal Trip Fuel 35 GalTaxi Fuel 1.7 GalFinal Reserve Fuel 18 Gal Fuel density 6 lbs/GalDetermine the expected landing mass.
75 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be:
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76 - Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
77 - In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
78 - A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
79 - Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ?
80 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
81 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
82 - The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
83 - At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be
84 - What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
85 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
86 - According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
87 - Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?
88 - In a steep turn to the left, when using flight spoilers for roll assistance and at the same time for reducing the airspeed:
89 - The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
90 - Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct during take-off with the cg at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) positioned at the maximum allowable aeroplane nose down position?
91 - You are flying from A (30°S 20°E) to B (30°S 30°W). What is the approximate final GC track?
92 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
93 - . What effect has a centre of gravity close to the most forward limit?
94 - In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:
95 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
96 - On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars (paralleled bus system), the on-board protection device opens:
97 - ATIS broadcast
98 - A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
99 - A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
100 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
101 - QNH is defined as
102 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
103 - Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
104 - Up to what altitude is blood oxygen saturation reduction unlikely to affect a pilot's judgement?
105 - The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:
106 - The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
107 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
108 - An autopilot system:
109 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean:
110 - The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
111 - The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about
112 - Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt Groundspeed 'back' 300 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
113 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
114 - Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
115 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
116 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
117 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
118 - The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
119 - With what type of cloud is 'DZ' precipitation most commonly associated?
120 - The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must: