120 domande in 120 minuti atpl


1 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
2 - Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56200 kgmaximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kgdry operating mass 35 500 kgestimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900 kgminimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.Find: maximum additional load
3 - The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)2. a control and timing unit3. registersThe combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
4 - With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
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5 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
6 - Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
7 - An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 KT IAS and 1000 fpm vertical speed. In this condition:
8 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
9 - One method to compensate adverse yaw is:
10 - On the readability scale what does 'Readability 3' mean:
11 - Overcast layer of stratus clouds with bases at 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France. The QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
12 - In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
13 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
14 - Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
15 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
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16 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
17 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
18 - In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
19 - CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
20 - The centre of gravity of an aircraft
21 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
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22 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
23 - True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if:
24 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
25 - What does the instruction:'Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER' mean:
26 - The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 15000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013,25 mb. OAT is -21°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
27 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
28 - The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
29 - The value of magnetic variation:
30 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
31 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
32 - Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in the
33 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
34 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
35 - The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
36 - In the ATC flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by:
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37 - During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach Number:
38 - The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:
39 - The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°). What is the cross-wind component?
40 - What are the main characteristics of active errors ? They:1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress3. occur at the human/machine interface4. lie dormant and are undetected at first
41 - After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must:
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42 - The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N.The constant of the cone for this chart is:
43 - The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission:
44 - Given:TAS = 470 kt, True HDG = 317°W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle and GS?
45 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
46 - Mode error is associated with:
47 - In the absence of position and instrument errors:
48 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
49 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
50 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
51 - Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of
52 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as:
53 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
54 - When the term 'Scattered' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
55 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
56 - The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is:
57 - For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are:
58 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
59 - The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
60 - Given the following parameters, in a capacitance fuel gauge, the correct formula is: A = area of platesD = distance between plates E = dielectric permittivity
61 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as:
62 - In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:
63 - Given the following: D = flight distanceX = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed outGSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
64 - A rhumb line from a position 86°N 30°W has an initial track of 085°T is it:
65 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
66 - Search and Rescue signalsThe ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE' is:
67 - The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
68 - QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
69 - Given: GS = 480 kt.Distance from A to B = 5360 NM. What is the time from A to B?
70 - An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if:
71 - The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and the:
72 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
73 - Given:Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs Cargo 350 lbsRamp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal Trip Fuel 35 GalTaxi Fuel 1.7 GalFinal Reserve Fuel 18 Gal Fuel density 6 lbs/GalDetermine the expected landing mass.
74 - On The Earth's ellipsoid one degree of latitude near the equator is:
75 - The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
76 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is:
77 - On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the 'pitch up' phenomenon:
78 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
79 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
80 - In mass and balance calculations the 'index' is:
81 - During take-off the third segment begins:
82 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
83 - According JAR CS / EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
84 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?
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85 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
86 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
87 - AIPWhich part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
88 - After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:
89 - Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
90 - The Sun moves from East to West at a speed of 15° longitude an hour. What ground speed will give you the opportunity to observe the Sun due South at all times at 60°00'N?
91 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
92 - An aircraft transmitting a distress message is required to give its position as:
93 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
94 - An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kgleft main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kgIf the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
95 - When descending at a constant Mach number:
96 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 KTFL 330cruise 0.78 MachISA +20 ° Cestimated landing weight 55000 kg.Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
97 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'?
98 - In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
99 - To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:
100 - The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:
101 - Urgency is defined as:
102 - The greater the pressure gradient the
103 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
104 - What does the phrase 'Squawk 1234' mean:
105 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
106 - Which of the following will reduce induced drag?
107 - In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: 1 - They prevent ice formation. 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds .4 - There are more than ten cycles per second
108 - A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:
109 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 95 NM True track 105W/V 060/15TAS 140 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
110 - Given:Pt: total pressure Ps: static pressurePd: dynamic pressure The altimeter is fed by:
111 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
112 - An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 KT. The turn radius is 2000m. The load factor (n) is approximately:
113 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
114 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
115 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:
116 - A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system?
117 - A pilot becomes skilled when he / she: 1: trains or practises regularly2: knows how to manage himself / herself3: possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft4: knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
118 - An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
119 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separationThe Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
120 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction: