Esame in PDF!
iOS & Android »
ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence Simulazione d'esame
120 domande in 120 minuti atpl
1 - Cabin pressure is controlled by:
The Cabin Air Mass Flow Control Inlet Valve(s).
Delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.
The cabin air re-circulation system.
Controlling The Flow Of Air Into The Cabin With Constant Outflow.
2 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR).Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
2 h 59 min
3 h 43 min
2 h 43 min
2 h 51 min
3 - Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
4 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
Unless the written permission of the Authority and the operator is obtained.
Unless they are unloaded and made safe.
Unless the commander agrees.
5 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
6 - The purpose of the contact breaker is to:
Control the primary circuit of the magneto
Connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
Connect the battery to the magneto
Connect The Secondary Coil To The Distributor
7 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM
Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM
8 - A high aspect ratio wing produces:
A decrease in stall speed
Less sensitivity to gust effects
An increase in induced drag
A decrease in induced drag
9 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
Only affected by the aeroplane gross mass
10 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
11 - How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:
Transponder not available
12 - When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical stress?
By speeding up the metabolic rate in the Autonomic Nervous System
By vasodilatation which permits a greater flow of blood to the periphery
By increasing cardiac frequency
By intense vasoconstriction
13 - On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
14 - The FMS Overfly function consists in:
Manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to fly over when sequencing it instead of flying by at the transition.
Manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to hold over for a selected time.
Selecting the secondary flight plan making it active to fly over the legs.
Manually selecting a flight plan to fly over each of the waypoints at the transitions along the route.
15 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
The polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
Above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
Below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
The polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
16 - In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
Hard Disk Drive
17 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
An increased acceleration
A higher V1
A shorter ground roll
A longer take-off run
18 - VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
500 ft above the highest obstacle.
2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
The highest obstacle.
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
19 - Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849. 1)Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
296° - 46 NM
116° - 47 NM
304° - 47 NM
123° - 46 NM[see Annex]
20 - What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?
QNH one double 'O' one
QNH one zero zero one
QNH one double zero one
QNH one thousand and one
21 - A barotrauma of the middle ear is:
A bacterial infection of the middle ear
A dilatation of the Eustachian tube
An acute or chronic trauma to the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum
An infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression
22 - Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. This reaction
Is always linked to excessive fear
Can only be controlled by medical treatment
May include various psychological and physiological elements which one can learn to manage
Is purely physiological and automatic
23 - An isohypse (contour)
Indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
Indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
Is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
Is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
24 - Which of the following statements is correct?
The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component
The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition
The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component
The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component
25 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM Endurance: 3,5 hTrue Track: 310 W/V: 270/30TAS: 120 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
26 - Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? 1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. 2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.
1) Is Correct, 2) Is Correct.
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.
1) Is Incorrect, 2) Is Incorrect.
1) Is Incorrect, 2) Is Correct.
27 - When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
Axial Velocity Decreases.
28 - Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport.
Air Traffic Centre
29 - The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is:
79 800 kg
74 800 kg
77 200 kg
77 800 kg
30 - The speed V1 is defined as:
Take-off climb speed
Speed for best angle of climb
Take-off decision speed
Engine failure speed
31 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
Put on the mask and goggles.
Cut off all air conditioning units.
Determine which system is causing the smoke.
Begin an emergency descent.
32 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
33 - Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message?
I say again
34 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - PARIS CDG Plate 20-3: Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NM Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6.
35 - In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
Green to yellow to red
Yellow to orange to red
Green to red to black
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
36 - Considering the sector from 10°N to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be
Easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
Westerlies at 40 kt
Westerlies in excess of 60 kt
37 - The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
About 7 items
About 30 items
Very limited - only 3 items
38 - To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:
Clear of runway
39 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
A rate of climb
A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
A rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
40 - Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that 1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
2 - 4
2 - 3
1 - 4
1 - 3
41 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
By uphill slope
By a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1
By low outside air temperature
42 - Even at normal cabin altitudes (i.e. around 8000 ft) you can get severe abdominal pain and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks. The correct counter-measure is:
Descend to a lower altitude
Use supplemental oxygen
Perform 'valsalva manoeuvre'
Climb to a higher altitude
43 - The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult at rest is (systolic/diastolic):
120/80 mm Hg
220/180 mm Hg
180/120 mm Hg
80/20 mm Hg
44 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
45 - The centre of gravity is the
Centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
Point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
46 - My message will be more effective and understandable if I:
Use the words twice method
Stress the end of message
Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
Stress every beginning of message
47 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar)?
48 - Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur?
In the stagnation point
In front of the stagnation point
49 - The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
Trade wind inversion
50 - What is the Q-code for 'magnetic bearing from the station'?
51 - The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
350 ml of air
150 ml of air
500 ml of air
75 ml of air
52 - Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistant 4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 5, 7
1, 3, 4, 6
1, 2, 3, 4
53 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
Continuous wave transmission
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft
54 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
Only from the front or rear
Under no circumstances
From any side
Only from the left or right side
55 - What is the meaning of the phrase 'Radar service terminated'?
ATC wants you to reset transponder
ATC wants you to continue VFR
You are now leaving the Terminal Area
You will no longer be provided with radar control
56 - What does the term 'way point' mean:
A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system
A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
57 - The current in a DC circuit, according to Ohm's law, can be described as:
Directly Proportional To Both The Voltage And The Resistance.
Inversely proportional to the resistance and directly proportional to the voltage.
Inversely proportional to both the voltage and the resistance.
Equal To The Voltage And Directly Proportional To The Resistance.
58 - Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
That is affirmative
That is right
59 - What does 'Friction coefficient 45' in a runway report mean:
Braking action good
Braking action not measurable
Braking action poor
Braking action medium
60 - What does the word 'correct' mean?
That is correct
Negative, the correct version is ...
Permission for proposed action not granted
An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ...
61 - What does 'SELCAL' mean:
A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units
A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously
A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only
62 - If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air:
Mach number increases.
Mach number decreases.
63 - A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is approximately:
1: 7 000 000
1: 5 000 000
1: 6 000 000
1: 3 500 000
64 - In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
Transformer rectifier unit.
3 phase current transformer unit.
65 - The speed of sound is affected by the:
Temperature of the air.
Humidity of the air.
Pressure of the air.
Density of the air.
66 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
67 - For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is:
68 - How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:
69 - Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while
Flying straight and level
70 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
Local thunderstorm activity
71 - Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
Statement 2 only
Statement 1 only
72 - When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13: 'Time' is:
Planned take-off time.
Estimated off-block time.
The time of flight plan filing.
Planned engine start time.
73 - When a strongly swept back wing stalls and the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be a(n):
Nose down tendency
Increase in sensitivity of elevator inputs
Nose up tendency and / or lack of elevator response
Tendency to increase speed after initial stall
74 - Given:Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs Cargo 350 lbsRamp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal Trip Fuel 35 GalTaxi Fuel 1.7 GalFinal Reserve Fuel 18 Gal Fuel density 6 lbs/GalDetermine the expected landing mass.
75 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be:
76 - Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
No, if the communication channel is overloaded
No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)
No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
77 - In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
In all stages
78 - A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
Is Free From The Normal Cb Tripping Characteristic.
Will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.
Will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
Can Be Reset At Any Time.
79 - Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ?
The horizontal tailplane.
80 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
81 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher or equivalent.
4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.
82 - The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
Tension, Then In Compression.
Compression, then in tension.
83 - At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be
A landing further along the runway than normal.
A high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
A landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.
A high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
84 - What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
Fastair 345 heavy
Fastair 345 widebody
Heavy Fastair 345
85 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
The oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons.
The oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.
The oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in case of cabin pressurisation failure.
A therapeutic oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers.
86 - According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
87 - Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?
Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis
Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane
Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller blade element would travel in a forward direction during one revolution
Critical tip velocity is the propeller speed at which flow separation first occurs at some part of the blade
88 - In a steep turn to the left, when using flight spoilers for roll assistance and at the same time for reducing the airspeed:
The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one Will extend.
The Right Aileron Will Ascend, The Left One Will Descend, The Right Spoiler Will Retract And The Left One Will Extend.
The Right Aileron Will Descend, The Left One Will Ascend, The Right Spoiler Will Extend And The Left One Will Retract.
The Right Aileron Will Ascend, The Left One Will Descend, The Right Spoiler Will Extend And The Left One Will Retract.
89 - The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
Are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time
Are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time
Allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
Are virtually unlimited
90 - Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct during take-off with the cg at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) positioned at the maximum allowable aeroplane nose down position?
If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system will be activated.
Early nose wheel raising will take place.
The rotation will require extra stick force.
Rotation will be normal.
91 - You are flying from A (30°S 20°E) to B (30°S 30°W). What is the approximate final GC track?
92 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
Depending on density altitude and mass
Depending on the OAT and net mass
93 - . What effect has a centre of gravity close to the most forward limit?
A better rate of climb capability.
A reduction in the specific fuel consumption.
A reduced rate of climb capability.
A decreased induced drag.
94 - In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:
Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)
The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage
Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back
Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage
95 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
A pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a different modulation
Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency
Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation
Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
96 - On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars (paralleled bus system), the on-board protection device opens:
The Exciter Breaker, The Generator Breaker And Tie Breaker.
The exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
The generator breaker.
The Generator Breaker And Tie Breaker.
97 - ATIS broadcast
Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
98 - A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
99 - A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
Indication will drop to zero.
Freeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure.
100 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS
There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available
101 - QNH is defined as
QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere
Pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
Pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
102 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
103 - Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
Water vapour condenses.
Temperature and dew point are nearly equal.
Relative humidity reaches 98%.
Water vapour is present.
104 - Up to what altitude is blood oxygen saturation reduction unlikely to affect a pilot's judgement?
105 - The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:
Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading
Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
106 - The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
107 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
108 - An autopilot system:
Must provide automatic take off functions.
Must provide at least aircraft guidance functions.
May provide automatic take off functions.
Must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions.
109 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean:
Read back VDF bearing
Repeat your last transmission
Consider that transmission as not sent
Check and confirm with originator
110 - The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
Fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
111 - The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about
2 - 2.5 hours a day
1 - 1.5 hours a day
4 - 4.5 hours a day
3 - 3.5 hours a day
112 - Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt Groundspeed 'back' 300 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
113 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
The flight engineer.
The airline's dispatcher.
114 - Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
115 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
116 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
117 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
Water may only be used for minor fires.
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
118 - The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
119 - With what type of cloud is 'DZ' precipitation most commonly associated?
120 - The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must:
Allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent hypoxia
Make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes
Make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen
Allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia
Invia il test per la correzione
Iscriviti alla Newsletter: