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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame
120 domande in 120 minuti atpl
1 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
Manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
Minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
Obstacle clearance in the approach area.
Manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
2 - Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56200 kgmaximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kgdry operating mass 35 500 kgestimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900 kgminimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.Find: maximum additional load
3 000 kg
5 600 kg
7 000 kg
4 000 kg
3 - The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)2. a control and timing unit3. registersThe combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
4 - With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
5 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
The correct ICAO 24 bits aircraft address code must be inserted on the control panel.
With the selector knobs the four digits of the squawk can be selected using the decimal symbols 0 through 9.
With ALT selected a reply in the modes A, C and S can be transmitted.
Range within "line of sight", and maximum of 200 NM
6 - Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
The CL/CD ratio is minimum (assume zero thrust).
Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
The gliding angle is minimum (assume zero thrust).
7 - An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 KT IAS and 1000 fpm vertical speed. In this condition:
Lift is less than drag
Lift is equal to weight
Drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward
Weight is greater than lift
8 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
Cancel my last message
My last transmission is cancelled
9 - One method to compensate adverse yaw is:
A differential aileron.
A balance panel.
An anti-balance tab.
A balance tab.
10 - On the readability scale what does 'Readability 3' mean:
Readable but with difficulty
Loud and clear
No problem to understand
11 - Overcast layer of stratus clouds with bases at 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France. The QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
Winter: clear sky / Summer: BKN CB base 1500 ft AGL.
Winter: SCT base 3000 ft AGL / Summer: OVC base 500 ft AGL.
Winter: BKN base 2500 ft AGL / Summer: BKN base 3500 ft AGL.
Winter: OVC base 500 ft AGL / Summer: SCT base 3000 ft AGL.
12 - In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
Increased or decreased depending upon the type of flap
13 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
No, the performance will be worse than in the chart
It does not matter which take-off technique is being used
Yes, the chart has been made for this situation
Performance will be better than in the chart
14 - Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
The same elevation
The same variation
The same angle of magnetic dip
15 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
16 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
Emergency Descent Procedure.
Long Range Cruise Descent.
Drift Down Procedure.
17 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
Is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
Is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
Is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
Is dependent on the OAT.
18 - In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
Behind a warm front in the summer
Ahead of a cold front in the winter
Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Ahead of a warm front in the winter
19 - CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
Not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
Intended solely to alter an individual's personality
Intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management
Is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
20 - The centre of gravity of an aircraft
Is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading.
May only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aircraft's certificate of airworthiness.
Must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
Can be allowed to move between defined limits.
21 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
22 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
Passengers by 10 %.
Seats by 2 %.
Seats by 10 %.
Passengers by 2 %.
23 - True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if:
P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS > 200 kt.
P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273° K.
P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS < 200 kt.
P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15°
24 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
25 - What does the instruction:'Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER' mean:
Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcast
Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9
Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communications
Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency
26 - The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 15000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013,25 mb. OAT is -21°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
The pressure altitude of the aircraft is: 15360 ft. 14640 ft. 572 hPa.
27 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
28 - The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
29 - The value of magnetic variation:
30 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
Not more than one month
Not more than 2 months
Not more than 28 days
Not more than three months
31 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reactiontime of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt withinthe (iii) ......... (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available
(i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available
32 - Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in the
Tropical air above the tropopause
Polar air above the tropopause
Tropical air below the tropopause
Polar air below the tropopause
33 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
34 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
Critical angle of attack
Maximum specific range
35 - The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
8°R - 261 kt
6°R - 251 kt
6°R - 259 kt
6°L - 256 kt
36 - In the ATC flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by:
Placing a tick in the relevant box
Circling the relevant box
Listing the items carried on the 'REMARKS' line
Crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
37 - During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach Number:
Decrease initially and increase subsequently.
Increase initially and remain constant subsequently.
38 - The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:
The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.
The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load
The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items
The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.
39 - The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°). What is the cross-wind component?
Is constant along a meridian of longitude
Is constant along a parallel of latitude
Varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
Is constant across the whole map
40 - What are the main characteristics of active errors ? They:1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress3. occur at the human/machine interface4. lie dormant and are undetected at first
41 - After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must:
Decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
Increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
Decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
Increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
42 - The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N.The constant of the cone for this chart is:
43 - The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission:
LEAVING FL 200
LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120
LEAVING FL 200, DESCENDING TO FL 120
44 - Given:TAS = 470 kt, True HDG = 317°W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle and GS?
3°R - 470 kt
5°L - 470 kt
5°R - 475 kt
5°L - 475 kt
45 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
Latitude, longitude and time
46 - Mode error is associated with:
47 - In the absence of position and instrument errors:
IAS = EAS.
IAS = CAS.
CAS = TAS.
CAS = EAS.
48 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
49 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
Stop transmitting, DISTRESS
Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY
Stop transmitting, MAYDAY
All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic
50 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
Radar contact established
Listen out on (frequency)
Establish radio contact with ...
That is correct
51 - Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of
Straight and level flight
Spinning into the same direction
Climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
Spinning into the opposite direction
52 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as:
20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
53 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
Very high frequency
Very low frequency
54 - When the term 'Scattered' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 oktas)
Half or less than half (3 or 4 oktas)
No clouds below 5000 feet/GND
Sky entirely covered (8 oktas)
55 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
Stop the loop rotation
56 - The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3, 5
2, 3, 4
2, 3, 5
1, 2, 3
57 - For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are:
Lower Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Can Be Symmetrical Or Asymmetrical.
Upper Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Is Always Asymmetrical.
Upper wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
Lower Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Is Always Asymmetrical.
58 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
59 - The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
Induced drag is equal to zero
Parasite drag equals twice the induced drag
Induced drag is lowest
Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag
60 - Given the following parameters, in a capacitance fuel gauge, the correct formula is: A = area of platesD = distance between plates E = dielectric permittivity
Capacitance = E x A / D
Capacitance = E x D x A
Capacitance = A x D / E
Capacitance = E x D / A
61 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as:
62 - In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:
None on a 270° heading in a left turn.
None on a 090° heading in a right turn.
Equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.
Equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.
63 - Given the following: D = flight distanceX = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed outGSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)
X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)
64 - A rhumb line from a position 86°N 30°W has an initial track of 085°T is it:
A spiral to the North pole
A random northerly track to the pole
Initially North 86°N and 180° later South of 86°N
A small circle north of 86°N
65 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System
Radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
Phase comparison from ground station transmissions
Radar principles using frequency shift
66 - Search and Rescue signalsThe ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE' is:
67 - The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 2005
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 6
68 - QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)
The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)
The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground
The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome
69 - Given: GS = 480 kt.Distance from A to B = 5360 NM. What is the time from A to B?
11 HR 07 MIN
11 HR 06 MIN
11 HR 15 MIN
11 HR 10 MIN
70 - An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if:
Stick force stability is independent of the airspeed and -altitude.
At transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics.
At high airspeed and low altitude the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics.
Stick force per g strongly decreases at low Mach numbers.
71 - The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and the:
Direction of propeller axis.
Local air speed vector.
Principal direction of the propeller blade.
72 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
200 hours of flight time
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time
73 - Given:Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs Cargo 350 lbsRamp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal Trip Fuel 35 GalTaxi Fuel 1.7 GalFinal Reserve Fuel 18 Gal Fuel density 6 lbs/GalDetermine the expected landing mass.
74 - On The Earth's ellipsoid one degree of latitude near the equator is:
More than 60 NM but less than 61 NM.
More than 60 NM.
Less than 60 NM.
75 - The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
The same as that of air and varies inversely with density.
Twice that of air and varies inversely with density.
Twice that of air and varies directly with density.
The same as that of air and varies directly with density.
76 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is:
Governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the aeroplane.
Tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.
Listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.
Governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing bending'.
77 - On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the 'pitch up' phenomenon:
Is caused by wingtip stall
Is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings
Is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices
Never occurs, since a swept wing is a 'remedy' to pitch up
78 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
The field length limited take-off mass will increase
V1 remains constant
V1 is increased
The usable length of the clearway is not limited
79 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
The aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position
Timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
The aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites
80 - In mass and balance calculations the 'index' is:
An imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.
A location in the aeroplane identified by a number.
The range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.
Is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment.
81 - During take-off the third segment begins:
When landing gear is fully retracted
When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started
When flap retraction is completed
When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2
82 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
WCA -2°, GS 396 kt
WCA +2°, GS 416 kt
WCA -2°, GS 426 kt
WCA +2°, GS 396 kt
83 - According JAR CS / EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
Significant Reduction In Functional Capabilities Or Safety Margins.
Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
No Effect On Operational Capabilities Or Safety.
84 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?
85 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
86 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
B, C, D and E.
B, C and
87 - AIPWhich part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
88 - After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:
15 seconds or less
30 to 60 seconds
89 - Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
90 - The Sun moves from East to West at a speed of 15° longitude an hour. What ground speed will give you the opportunity to observe the Sun due South at all times at 60°00'N?
91 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
Binding for all air line companies with international traffic
Binding for all member states
92 - An aircraft transmitting a distress message is required to give its position as:
The most accurate possible using GPS if fitted.
Present or last known position, altitude or level and heading.
Position relative to a VRP.
Latitude and longitude.
93 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved
Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes
All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart
Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level[see Annex]
94 - An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kgleft main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kgIf the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
95 - When descending at a constant Mach number:
The difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS variation.
CAS remains constant.
96 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 KTFL 330cruise 0.78 MachISA +20 ° Cestimated landing weight 55000 kg.Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
12 400 kg, 04h 12 min
11 400 kg, 04h 12 min
11 400 kg, 03h 55 min
12 400 kg, 03h 55 min[see Annex]
97 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'?
98 - In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
3 hours after non decompression diving
48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made
36 hours after any scuba diving
99 - To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:
Clear of runway
100 - The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:
The emergency frequency in any case
The air-ground frequency in use at the time
The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
The regional guard frequency
101 - Urgency is defined as:
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach
A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
102 - The greater the pressure gradient the
Further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
103 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
Climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
Climb or descent 1 000 ft
The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and: climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft climb or descent 1 000 ft climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
Climb or descend 500 ft
104 - What does the phrase 'Squawk 1234' mean:
Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
Give a short count for DF (direction finder)
Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz
Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
105 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
Is NAD procedure 2
Is NAD procedure 1
Depends on the wind component
Is either procedure 1 or 2, because there is no difference in noise distribution
106 - Which of the following will reduce induced drag?
Low aspect ratio
Elliptical lift distribution
Extending the flaps
Flying at high angles of attack
107 - In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: 1 - They prevent ice formation. 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds .4 - There are more than ten cycles per second
Physical/chemical (glycol-based Liquid).
Electrical (electrical resistances).
Thermal (use of hot air).
Mechanical (pneumatic Source Which Acts By Deforming The Profiles Of The Leading Edge).
108 - A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:
At least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
A visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be added
A sound and visual alarm
A sound alarm or a visual alarm
109 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 95 NM True track 105W/V 060/15TAS 140 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
110 - Given:Pt: total pressure Ps: static pressurePd: dynamic pressure The altimeter is fed by:
111 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
Roll and pitch
Roll and yaw
Pitch and yaw
(i) 25 (ii) 17
112 - An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 KT. The turn radius is 2000m. The load factor (n) is approximately:
113 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
NOTAM, AIP and MAL.
Only in AIP.
Only in NOTAM.
In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
114 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
90 HZ 150 HZ
63 mHZ 123 mHZ
328mHZ 335 mHZ
75kHZ 135 kHZ
115 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:
A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.
A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure.
A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.
A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.
116 - A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system?
The Oxygen Masks Are Automatically Presented To Flight Crew Members
The oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
Manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
If The Automatic Mask Presentation Has Been Activated, The Oxygen Will Flow Within The First 3 Minutes
117 - A pilot becomes skilled when he / she: 1: trains or practises regularly2: knows how to manage himself / herself3: possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft4: knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
118 - An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
119 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separationThe Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
2000 feet (600 m).
500 feet (150 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
120 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
Changing over Fastair 345
Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
118.0 Fastair 345
Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
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