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Quiz ATPL - Test di esame Airline Transport Pilot license - Simulazione d'esame
ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame
120 domande in 120 minuti atpl
1 - V1 has to be:
Equal to or higher than VMCG
Equal to or higher than V2
Higher than VR
Equal to or higher than VMCA
2 - Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown
3 - The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
Map showing the isoclinic lines
Deviation correction curve
Map showing the isogonal lines
Compass swinging curve
4 - Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport?
5 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
A maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
The surface of the runway
A maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
Local thunderstorm activity
6 - Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.
It remains constant.
7 - When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is not required?
Drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.
Drain all usable fuel.
Removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.
Drain all engine tank oil.
8 - In accordance with OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
25 hours of operation.
30 minutes of operation.
48 hours of operation.
9 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
10 - What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?
Ask the station to change to frequency 121.5 MHZ.
Immediately acknowledge the distress message.
Request position of the station in distress.
Request the nature of emergency in progress, and request further intentions.
11 - The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
12 - Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.
13 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
Selecting a lower V2
Selecting a lower V1
Selecting a lower VR
A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2
14 - The altitude alerting system:
Generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude.
Alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude.
Alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement.
Alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.
15 - A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
40 NM and 060°
30 NM and 240°
30 NM and 060°
40 NM and 240°
16 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
17 - When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
Flight endurance will be increased.
Stalling speeds will be higher.
Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
Stalling speeds will be lower.
18 - Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from
Convective clouds with little or no turbulence
Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
Convective clouds with moderate turbulence
Stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
19 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as:
20 - Latitude may be defined as:
The angular distance measured along a meridian from the equator to a parallel of the latitude, measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds and named North to South.
The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the parallel of latitude.
The displacement of a place from equator.
The distance from equator to a place on the surface of the Earth.
21 - In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because:
The pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
Effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
Trim tab deflection increases Mcrit
Mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
22 - Given:Mach number M = 0.70measured impact temperature = - 48 °Cthe recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe = 0.85The OAT is:
- 68 °C
- 45 °C
- 51 °C
- 65 °C
23 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account
At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass
At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass
The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited[see Annex]
24 - On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by:
A white or cyan empty lozenge.
A white or cyan solid lozenge.
An amber solid circle.
A red full square.
25 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
26 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
27 - The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn
Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
28 - Cumulus clouds are an indication for
The approach of a cold front
The approach of a warm front
Up and downdrafts
29 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
30 - What does the word 'cancel' mean?
A change has been made to your last clearance
Wait and I will call you
Annul the previously transmitted clearance
Consider that transmission as not sent
31 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
32 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
33 - Refer to E(LO)1:What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 W01005?
EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
Clonbullogue aerodrome[see Annex]
34 - The priority of the instruction 'taxi to runway 05' is:
The same as 'line-up runway 07 and wait'.
Less than 'cleared to land'.
Greater than 'caution, construction work left of taxiway'.
Greater than 'transmit for QDM'.
35 - According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
36 - Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
HDG 095° - ETA 1155 UTC
HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTC
HDG 115° - ETA 1145 UTC
HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTC
37 - Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with trailing edge flaps extended is:
Smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension.
38 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
39 - For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.VAR is 13°E.Calculate the cross wind component?
40 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
If just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied reverse-thrust just prior to take-off.
Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
41 - An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ?
The commander of the aircraft.
The aircraft manufacturer or supplier.
The appropriate Aviation Authority.
42 - The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system:
Does Not Affect Aerodynamic Performance Of The Wing And Causes No Reduction In Maximum Thrust.
Reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.
Does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.
Reduces Aerodynamic Performance Of The Wing And Causes A Reduction In Maximum Thrust.
43 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
The aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position
Timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
The aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites
44 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
A frequency for air-to-air communication
An international emergency frequency
An airline operation frequency
A regional UHF frequency
45 - In the directional gyro the detection system of the local vertical feeds:
A torque motor on the sensitive axis.
A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.
Two torque motors arranged horizontally.
A levelling erection torque motor.
46 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
47 - The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when:
Velocity and RPM increase
Forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
Velocity and RPM decrease
48 - A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W. The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:
49 - One design method to avoid control surface flutter is:
Through The Correct Use Of Balance Tabs.
Through The Correct Use Of Trim Tabs.
Ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface.
Providing The Wing Structure With Sufficient Flexibility.
50 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:
3 Hand Fire-extinguishers Conveniently Located In The Passenger Compartment.
6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
51 - Given:Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information: TAS 360 kt,W/V 330°/80kt, Compass heading 237°,Deviation on this heading -5°, Variation 19°W.What is the average ground speed for this leg?
52 - The standard mass for a child is
35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
35 kg for all flights.
30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.
38 kg for all flights.
53 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
54 - A slat will:
Prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack
Provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing
Increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing
Increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge
55 - If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:
Mach number decreases.
The difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variation.
Mach number remains constant.
Mach number increases.
56 - Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light?
57 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 140 NM GS Out 90 ktGS Home 80 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
58 - What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?
Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
Cabin air and oxygen.
59 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'
60 - Given: maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg maximum landing mass 56200 kgmaximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg dry operating mass 35500 kg estimated load 14500 kg estimated trip fuel 4900kg minimum take-off fuel 7400 kgFind the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
61 - What does the phrase 'Read back' mean:
Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
Check and confirm with originator
Did you correctly receive this message?
Let me know that you have received and understood this message
62 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.
63 - Aerodrome traffic is:
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
64 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ?
65 - The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
Strength of the fuselage
Strength of the wing root
Total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
Allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
66 - Approach procedures - MDH / OCHFor a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
The Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
67 - The FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of:
An Electronic Engine Control Unit Only.
An electronic engine control unit and its peripherals (fuel metering, actuators, electrical wiring, sensors...).
An electronic engine control unit and the engine display units in the cockpit.
All Electronic Engine Control Units Installed On The Aircraft.
68 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
108 to 111.95 MHz
108 to 117.95 MHz
108 to 135.95 MHz
118 to 135.95 MHz
69 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
Return to departure airport
Descend below the MNPS space
Land at the nearest airport
Climbing or descending 500 feet
70 - The clearance: 'cleared for immediate take-off runway 03' is:
An urgency message.
An unauthorized message.
A flight safety message.
A flight regularity message.
71 - Given:TAS = 270 kt, Track (T) = 260°,W/V = 275/30kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
262 - 241 kt
264 - 237 kt
264 - 241 kt
262 - 237 kt
72 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
State in which the aeroplane is operating
State of the operator
73 - Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Figure 4.5.4 (Descent)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?
74 - The following factors increase stall speed:
Increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension
A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward CG shift
A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting
An increase in load factor, a forward CG shift, decrease in thrust
75 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
Transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
Compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment
Transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity
Monitor the satellites' orbits and status
76 - The connection in parallel of two 12 volt / 40 Ah batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics:
12 Volt / 40 Ah
24 volt / 40 Ah
24 volt / 80 Ah
12 volt / 80 ah
77 - A CG location beyond the aft limit leads to:
A too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off
An unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g)
A better recovery performance in the spin
An increasing static longitudinal stability
78 - Which statement is correct?I. Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.
I is correct, II is incorrect.
I is correct, II is correct.
I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
I is incorrect, II is correct.
79 - Information received from the senses is lost:
Within 10 - 20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the Long Term Memory.
Only if you suffer from brain damage or disease.
If you choose to store the information in one of the sensory memories (e.g. Iconic or Echoic memories).
If an additional action takes place (e.g.: pulling a circuit breaker or extinguishing a warning light).
80 - The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport airplane is within the following range:
3000 To 5000 Psi
5 to 10 psi
300 to 500 psi
20 to 50 psi
81 - Given:True Track = 095° TAS = 160 ktTrue Heading = 087° GS = 130 ktsCalculate W/V
82 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:
83 - If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
Switch wire grounded.
Fouled spark plugs.
Excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
84 - Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
12 Volts, 40 Ampere-hours.
24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
12 Volts, 80 Ampere-hours.
85 - A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
Is Free From The Normal Cb Tripping Characteristic.
Will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.
Will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
Can Be Reset At Any Time.
86 - A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:
All Wheels Are Up And Locked.
At least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition.
The landing has been selected down using the emergency extension system.
All Wheels Are Down And Locked.
87 - The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3, 5
2, 3, 4
2, 3, 5
1, 2, 3
88 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service)?
89 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
2 070 m
90 - At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?
End of March
Beginning of January
End of June
Beginning of July
91 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height?
Three five hundred
Three five zero zero
Three five double zero
Three thousand five hundred
92 - . The reference about which centre of gravity moments are taken is the
Centre of mass
Centre of pressure
93 - Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E Drift angle: 5° leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
94 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
An area liable to flooding
Short gang-mown grass
95 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
96 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
97 - When completing Item 9 of the ATC flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered:
The most descriptive abbreviation
'XXXX' followed by an entry in Item 18
'ZZZZ' followed by an entry in Item 18
98 - Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
All or nothing' gate.
Inhibited' or 'negated' gate.
State indicator' gate.
Any Or All' Gate.
99 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
All engines operating only
One engine inoperative only
Failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance
Failure of the critical engine only
100 - Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
101 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
102 - Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?
In a multi-crew cockpit hypoxia will always be detectable.
Only a solo pilot is more prone to illusions.
Hypoxia improves night vision therefore the pilot will have no indication of danger.
Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect.
103 - A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most likely?
His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be incorporated.
An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences.
104 - An 'Automatic Terminal Information Service' provides:
Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation
Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast
Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)
Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR
105 - If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
'Read you one, read you one'
'How do you read?'
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
106 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
Engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.
Climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.
Obstacle clearance after engine failure.
Weight during landing at the alternate.
107 - What does the word " WILCO" mean?
I read you fine.
I understand your message and will comply with it.
I have received all of your last transmission.
As communication is difficult, I will call you later.
108 - Holding procedures - Offset EntryAbove 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
1 minute 30 seconds.
109 - What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is vision processed?
The brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the cerebellum.
The brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the optic nerve centre.
The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the cortex.
The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the retina.
110 - Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
VLF (Very Low Frequency).
HF (High Frequency).
UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
SHF (Super High Frequency).
111 - How does freezing rain develop?
Snow falls through a layer where temperatures are above 0°C
Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
Through melting of ice crystals
Through melting of snow grains
112 - How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75 departure aerodrome elevation 1500' QNH = 1023 hPa temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30'
113 - The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level
DON'T SINK repetitive only
114 - In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:
Independent to the aircraft true airspeed
Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
Proportional to the aircraft weight
Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
115 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
The speed for maximum climb angle Vx
The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP
The speed for maximum rate of climb
116 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
The transmitter and receiver move towards each other
The transmitter moves away from the receiver
There is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver
117 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63 MHz from that of the interrogation signal.
When passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0.
The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals to calculate the distance.
The four letter SELCAL code
118 - Which of the following calls is a "GENERAL CALL"?
YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.
YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
119 - The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by:
A Guard On The Selector Switch Which Cannot Be Moved Until The Aircraft Is Airborne.
The electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch.
A pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector.
Any Attempt To Select The Landing Gear Up Will Result In A Flashing Warning Light And A Loud Horn.
120 - Shock induced separation results in
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