120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - The highest value of longitude is found:
2 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
3 - Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:
4 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight DeparturesA straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
5 - On a chart, 49 NM is represented by 7 cm. What is the scale?
6 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
7 - When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:
8 - During the approach, the radio altimeter indicates 950 ft. This is:
9 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
10 - What is meant by presbycusis?
11 - The properties of a gyroscope are: 1 - rigidity in space2 - rigidity on earth 3 - precession4 - Schuler oscillationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
12 - Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
13 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
14 - The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are: 1. presence of a permanent field 2. closed electrical circuit 3. generator terminals short-circuited 4. minimum rotation speed The combination of correct statements is:
15 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
16 - What does the abbreviation 'IMC' mean?
17 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
18 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
19 - An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
20 - How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane?
21 - On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive 'resolution advisory' (RA) is a 'resolution advisory':
22 - When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
23 - Accident investigation, objectiveThe sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
24 - According to PART-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
25 - Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass?
26 - An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ?
27 - The centre of gravity of a body is that point
28 - The semicircular canals form part of the
29 - The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
30 - Long range cruise is selected as
31 - During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked
32 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
33 - Must a 'general call' be acknowledged'?
34 - Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last:
35 - What does 'Friction coefficient 20' in a runway report mean:
36 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
37 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
38 - What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345?
39 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
40 - An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
41 - A stage in an axial compressor:
42 - The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:
43 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
44 - Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
45 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
46 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
47 - The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
48 - Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
49 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
50 - The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
51 - On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:
52 - What does the abbreviation 'RVR' mean:
53 - The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is
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54 - During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
55 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
56 - What wind velocity is indicated?
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57 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
58 - Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level ?
59 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
60 - You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
61 - The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is directly supplied by:
62 - The boundary layer of a wing is:
63 - In the Air Almanac the highest time difference listed for difference between UTC and Standard time is maximum:
64 - What does 'SELCAL' mean:
65 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
66 - Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct?
67 - Which statement is correct in respect of CL and angle of attack?
68 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase:
69 - The maximum aft position of the centre of gravity is, amongst others, limited by the:
70 - The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:
71 - In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH)
72 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853. 1) to position N5300 W00940?
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73 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in
74 - Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
75 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
76 - The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:
77 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
78 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
79 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
80 - The optimum altitude:
81 - Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of:
82 - Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
83 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
84 - Refer to General Student Pilot Route Manual:In the ATC flight plan Item 10, 'standard equipment' is considered to be:
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85 - During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
86 - The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the:
87 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 338 NM True track 045W/V 225/35TAS 120 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
88 - The difference between ( 1) a fuse and ( 2) a circuit breaker is:
89 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 400 US Gallons.If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is:
90 - A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called:
91 - What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?
92 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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93 - Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ?
94 - What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
95 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
96 - At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320 KT,is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.For a mean rate of descent of 1800 fpm at a mean GS of 232 KT, the latest time at which to commence descent is:
97 - Flight safety messages are:
98 - What does the abbreviation 'AFIS' mean?
99 - The clearance: 'cleared for immediate take-off runway 03' is:
100 - When problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to knowledge-based activities?
101 - Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have:
102 - A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
103 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
104 - Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.Its position is now approximately:
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105 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EASA OPS is:
106 - The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure:
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107 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
108 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
109 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
110 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
111 - The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a:
112 - CRM and MCC training are designed to improve:
113 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
114 - The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is:
115 - Ozone in the air of a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by:
116 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 2800 NM True track 140W/V 140/100TAS 500 k What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
117 - Refer to JAR Student Pilot Route Manual, Paris, Charles-de-Gaulle (Plate 20- 2): The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is:
118 - Given:TAS = 155 kt, Track (T) = 305°,W/V = 160/18kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
119 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyro is aligned along the:
120 - A rescue unit is: