120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - V1 has to be:
2 - Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
3 - The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
4 - Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport?
5 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
6 - Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
7 - When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is not required?
8 - In accordance with OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
9 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
10 - What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?
11 - The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
12 - Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
13 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
14 - The altitude alerting system:
15 - A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
16 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
17 - When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
18 - Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from
19 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as:
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20 - Latitude may be defined as:
21 - In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because:
22 - Given:Mach number M = 0.70measured impact temperature = - 48 °Cthe recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe = 0.85The OAT is:
23 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
24 - On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by:
25 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
26 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
27 - The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
28 - Cumulus clouds are an indication for
29 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
30 - What does the word 'cancel' mean?
31 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
32 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
33 - Refer to E(LO)1:What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 W01005?
34 - The priority of the instruction 'taxi to runway 05' is:
35 - According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
36 - Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
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37 - Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with trailing edge flaps extended is:
38 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
39 - For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.VAR is 13°E.Calculate the cross wind component?
40 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
41 - An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ?
42 - The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system:
43 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
44 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
45 - In the directional gyro the detection system of the local vertical feeds:
46 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
47 - The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when:
48 - A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W. The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:
49 - One design method to avoid control surface flutter is:
50 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:
51 - Given:Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information: TAS 360 kt,W/V 330°/80kt, Compass heading 237°,Deviation on this heading -5°, Variation 19°W.What is the average ground speed for this leg?
52 - The standard mass for a child is
53 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
54 - A slat will:
55 - If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:
56 - Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light?
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57 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 140 NM GS Out 90 ktGS Home 80 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
58 - What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?
59 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
60 - Given: maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg maximum landing mass 56200 kgmaximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg dry operating mass 35500 kg estimated load 14500 kg estimated trip fuel 4900kg minimum take-off fuel 7400 kgFind the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
61 - What does the phrase 'Read back' mean:
62 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.
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63 - Aerodrome traffic is:
64 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ?
65 - The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
66 - Approach procedures - MDH / OCHFor a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
67 - The FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of:
68 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
69 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
70 - The clearance: 'cleared for immediate take-off runway 03' is:
71 - Given:TAS = 270 kt, Track (T) = 260°,W/V = 275/30kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
72 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
73 - Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Figure 4.5.4 (Descent)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?
74 - The following factors increase stall speed:
75 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
76 - The connection in parallel of two 12 volt / 40 Ah batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics:
77 - A CG location beyond the aft limit leads to:
78 - Which statement is correct?I. Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.
79 - Information received from the senses is lost:
80 - The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport airplane is within the following range:
81 - Given:True Track = 095° TAS = 160 ktTrue Heading = 087° GS = 130 ktsCalculate W/V
82 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:
83 - If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
84 - Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
85 - A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
86 - A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:
87 - The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is:
88 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service)?
89 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
90 - At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?
91 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height?
92 - . The reference about which centre of gravity moments are taken is the
93 - Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E Drift angle: 5° leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
94 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
95 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
96 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
97 - When completing Item 9 of the ATC flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered:
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98 - Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
99 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
100 - Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
101 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
102 - Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?
103 - A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most likely?
104 - An 'Automatic Terminal Information Service' provides:
105 - If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
106 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
107 - What does the word " WILCO" mean?
108 - Holding procedures - Offset EntryAbove 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
109 - What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is vision processed?
110 - Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
111 - How does freezing rain develop?
112 - How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75 departure aerodrome elevation 1500' QNH = 1023 hPa temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30'
113 - The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
114 - In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:
115 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
116 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
117 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
118 - Which of the following calls is a "GENERAL CALL"?
119 - The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by:
120 - Shock induced separation results in