120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
2 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
3 - The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1- MLS2- GPS3- VOR4- IRSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
4 - The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)
5 - For an ATC flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
6 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures?
7 - For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
8 - What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery?
9 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
10 - When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:
11 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
12 - An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
13 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
14 - The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
15 - Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct?
16 - If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
17 - Which of the following statements is true ?
18 - What does the abbreviation 'HJ' mean?
19 - When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
20 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
21 - An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
22 - The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission:
23 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL.An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
24 - What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?
25 - In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
26 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
27 - The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a:
28 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
29 - Flight safety messages are:
30 - The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
31 - What elements establish synergy within the crew ?
32 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
33 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in
34 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
35 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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36 - Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:
37 - On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main bus bars and other AC generators, the protection device that opens is/are the:
38 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
39 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
40 - Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of
41 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'?
42 - A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:
43 - The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:
44 - What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' mean?
45 - Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should:
46 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
47 - If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
48 - The use of professional languages offers:
49 - Refer to 5AT(HI):On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is:
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50 - Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
51 - A class A fire is a fire of:
52 - The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
53 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
54 - With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs Basic arm: 88.5 InchesOne pilot: 160 lbsFront seat passenger: 200 lbs Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbsBaggage in zone 4: 50 lbs Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
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55 - A conventional stabiliser on a stable aeroplane in a normal cruise condition: 1 - always provides negative lift.2 - contributes to the total lift of the aeroplane.3 - may stall before the wing, in icing conditions, with large flap settings, unless adequate design and/or operational precautions are taken.4 - is necessary to balance the total pitch moment of the aeroplane. Which of the following lists all the correct statements ?
56 - The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
57 - Informal roles within a crew
58 - A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:
59 - When the term 'Scattered' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
60 - Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
61 - . Basic Empty Mass is:
62 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
63 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
64 - When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:
65 - Regarding the oxygen system of a CS 25 aeroplane:
66 - An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:
67 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)determine the distance.
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68 - When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of
69 - Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have:Cargo compartment 1: empty Cargo compartment 2: 1000 kgCargo compartment 3: 3000 kgCargo compartment 4: 2000 kgCargo compartment 5: 1000 kg Passengers in compartment OA: 20 Passengers in compartment OB: 20 Passengers in compartment OC: 30The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at:
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70 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean:
71 - Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:1. anaemia2. smoking in the cockpit3. carbon monoxide poisoning4. hypoxia
72 - When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?
73 - The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
74 - In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur:Ps = static pressure.Pdyn = dynamic pressure. Ptot = total pressure.
75 - Select the letter code for HB-FBO.
76 - An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The maximum traffic load is:
77 - During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments because:
78 - A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 min later on a relative bearing of 270°.The W/V is calm
79 - For the same TAS, when pressure altitude decreases below the tropopause:
80 - Which statement is correct regarding the ICAO Standard Atmosphere ?
81 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be:
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82 - Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of:
83 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
84 - The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)2. a control and timing unit3. registersThe combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
85 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
86 - In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to:
87 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..... ° each side ofthe localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .... NM minimum from the threshold.
88 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
89 - Stress management programmes usually involve:
90 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
91 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - fires with an electrical origin4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productsWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
92 - Given:E = electromotive force (emf) Tc = cold junction temperature Th = hot junction temperature K = constantThe relationship that applies to a thermocouple is:
93 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
94 - Inertial Reference System sensors include:
95 - MNPS is the abbreviation for:
96 - What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
97 - Which statement is correct?The lift to drag ratio determines the
98 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height?
99 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
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100 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
101 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
102 - The performance of the man machine system is above all:
103 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
104 - Given:Mach number M = 0.70measured impact temperature = - 48 °Cthe recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe = 0.85The OAT is:
105 - Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
106 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
107 - In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
108 - The Maximum Taxi (Ramp) Mass is governed by:
109 - On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W).The true course on departure from position A is approximately:
110 - What does the word 'negative' mean?
111 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase:
112 - The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
113 - When an aircraft is rolled to the left, adverse yaw will be reduced by:
114 - The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
115 - Given:The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kgTotal fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel The traffic load is 770 kgWhat is the Zero Fuel Mass?
116 - Aircraft told to contact Stephenville Radar on 132.010. Response if unable to comply:
117 - Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
118 - The main purpose of a constant speed drive unit is to:
119 - Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of
120 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)