Test 120 domande esame ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

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120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - The highest value of longitude is found: Along equator. At Greenwich anti meridian. Close to the prime meridian. Close to the poles.

2 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? Increase of aircraft mass Decrease of aircraft mass Tailwind Headwind

3 - Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: Correct That is affirmative Affirm That is right

4 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight DeparturesA straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: 30°. 45°. 15°. 12.5°.

5 - On a chart, 49 NM is represented by 7 cm. What is the scale? 1:700 000 1:130 000 1:1 300 000 1:7 000 000

6 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be: Greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270° Greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°

7 - When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the: Voltage to decrease under load. Electrolyte to "boil". Current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage. Voltage To Increase Due To The Current Available.

8 - During the approach, the radio altimeter indicates 950 ft. This is: The relative height of the aircraft above airport level (AAL). The height of the pilot eyes with regard to the ground. The relative height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. The height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground.

9 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: The licence is issued or validated The medical assessment is issued The licence is delivered to the pilot The licence is issued or renewed

10 - What is meant by presbycusis? Total loss of hearing in one ear due to use of a headset in the cockpit. Gradual loss of hearing with age. Gradual onset of long-sightedness with age. Total loss of hearing in both ears due to disease.

11 - The properties of a gyroscope are: 1 - rigidity in space2 - rigidity on earth 3 - precession4 - Schuler oscillationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3. 1, 4. 1, 3. 2, 4.

12 - Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back? QNH, weather information, runway-in-use ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability

13 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: Develop principles and technique for international aviation Approve new international airlines Approve new international airlines with jet aircraft Approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies

14 - The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are: 1. presence of a permanent field 2. closed electrical circuit 3. generator terminals short-circuited 4. minimum rotation speed The combination of correct statements is: 1, 3 1, 2 2, 3 1, 4

15 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by: Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500 Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700

16 - What does the abbreviation 'IMC' mean? In most cases International meteorological channel Instrument meteorological conditions In meteorological conditions

17 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? EHF VHF SHF UHF

18 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft

19 - An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point? 1030 1042 1013 996

20 - How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane? Stick shaker and / or aerodynamic buffet Aural warning only Stall warning light only Stick pusher

21 - On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive 'resolution advisory' (RA) is a 'resolution advisory': That advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft. Asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

22 - When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is: Lower than the true altitude. Equal to the standard altitude. The same as the true altitude. Higher than the true altitude.

23 - Accident investigation, objectiveThe sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: Prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases. Prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability. Prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design. Prevention of accidents or incidents.

24 - According to PART-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: Two years The period of validity of the licence One year Indefinitely

25 - Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass? It is a component of dry operating mass. It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load. It is dry operating mass minus traffic load. It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.

26 - An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? Maximum zero fuel mass. Altitude and temperature of the departure airfield. En route obstacle clearance requirements. Maximum certificated take - off mass.

27 - The centre of gravity of a body is that point Where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero Through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act Which is always used as datum when computing moments Where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero

28 - The semicircular canals form part of the Inner ear External ear Ear drum Middle ear

29 - The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions: Only in the horizontal plane In horizontal and vertical planes Only in the vertical plane Based on speed control

30 - Long range cruise is selected as The climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative. The speed for best economy. Specific range with tailwind. The higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

31 - During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked If the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed: Increases until reaching VMO. Decreases by 1% per 600 FT. Decreases until reaching the stall speed.

32 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it. Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar. Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR. Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.

33 - Must a 'general call' be acknowledged'? Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed Yes, but only from the station first called Yes, from all stations in a random sequence No

34 - Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last: 30 minutes. 10 hours. 60 minutes. 25 hours.

35 - What does 'Friction coefficient 20' in a runway report mean: Braking action poor Braking action unreliable Braking action good Braking action medium

36 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is: 121.800 MHz. 118.800 MHz. 128.800 MHz. 123.45 MHz.

37 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: At every ATS facility. At every international airport. If they are adjacent to the sea. In each search and rescue region.

38 - What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345? Fastair 345 No abbreviated form 2345 Fastair 45

39 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip: Counter clockwise Clockwise From the upper side of the wing toward the underwing From the underwing toward the upper side of the wing

40 - An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is 9 years for each aeroplane. Whenever a major modification is carried out. Whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed. 4 years for each aeroplane.

41 - A stage in an axial compressor: Has A Compression Ratio In The Order Of 2.1 Is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc Is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades Has A Compression Ratio In The Order Of 0.8

42 - The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: Weight Of The Air Induced To Its Weight After Compression. Area of the piston to the cylinder volume. Diameter of the bore to the piston stroke. Volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead Centre.

43 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? Will change to TOWER X-BC 118.7 X-BC Stephenville TOWER X-BC Changing over X-BC

44 - Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

45 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run? 2, 4, 5 and 7 1, 4, 6 and 8 2, 3, 6 and 7 1, 3, 5 and 8

46 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? High mass Low mass Tailwind Headwind

47 - The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages Reduce the hysteresis effect Allow damping of the measurement in the unit

48 - Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be: 42093 kg. 42195 kg. 42312 kg. 42210 kg.

49 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM? 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline

50 - The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include? Distress traffic ended Disregard distress communication, OUT MAYDAY traffic ended Emergency communication finished

51 - On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: 3 - 5 Psi 13 - 15 psi 7 - 9 psi 22 Psi

52 - What does the abbreviation 'RVR' mean: Runway visibility report Radar vectors requested Recleared via route... Runway visual range

53 - The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is

320/60 300/70 115/60 300/60

54 - During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates: A heading fluctuating about 270°. An apparent turn to the north. An apparent turn to the south. No apparent turn.

55 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: All engines operating only One engine inoperative only Failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance Failure of the critical engine only

56 - What wind velocity is indicated?

105°(M)/20KT 285°(M)/20KT 255°(M)/20KT 7500

57 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the: Performance database Air data database Auto flight database Height based on QFE

58 - Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level ? FL 300 FL 180 FL 390 FL 100

59 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? It will increase the take-off distance available It will decrease the take-off distance It will decrease the take-off run It will increase the take-off distance

60 - You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because: Your judgement could be impaired You will get the bends The blood-pressure can get too low The blood-pressure can get too high

61 - The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is directly supplied by: An Excitation Alternator With A Permanent Magnet Generator. The voltage regulator. An excitation alternator with three-phase generator and revolving diodes. A Direct Current Generator (exciter Dynamo).

62 - The boundary layer of a wing is: A turbulent flow around the wing Created by the normal shock wave at transonic speeds Caused by suction on the upper wing surface A layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity

63 - In the Air Almanac the highest time difference listed for difference between UTC and Standard time is maximum: 13 hours. 24 hours. 6 hours. 12 hours.

64 - What does 'SELCAL' mean: A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

65 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: Spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles Multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane Ground returns ahead of the antennas Back-scattering of antennas

66 - Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct? In case of ATFM (Air Traffic Flow Management) the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the EOBT. A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights. A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed. Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.

67 - Which statement is correct in respect of CL and angle of attack? For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, CL is not zero. For an asymmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, CL is zero. For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, CL is zero. For an asymmetrical aerofoil with positive camber, if the angle of attack is greater than zero, CL is zero.

68 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase: UNABLE NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION REGRET CANNOT FOLLOW INSTRUCTION CANCEL INSTRUCTION

69 - The maximum aft position of the centre of gravity is, amongst others, limited by the: Maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane. Required minimum value of the stick force per g. Inability to achieve maximum rotation rate during take-off. Maximum elevator deflection.

70 - The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of: Airborne weather radar system Transponders fitted in the aircraft Air traffic control radar systems F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

71 - In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH) 1, 2, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 4. 1, 3.

72 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853. 1) to position N5300 W00940?

293° - 33 NM 057° - 27 NM 324° - 17 NM 309° - 33 NM

73 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in The loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'. The weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aircraft must be re-weighed always. The loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'. The weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aircraft.

74 - Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia? Hearing Motor coordination Speech. Night vision

75 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Acknowledge the message immediately Impose radio silence on the frequency in use Monitor the frequency to offer assistance if required Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use

76 - The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a: Flow Control Valve. Distribution valve. Check valve. Shutoff Valve.

77 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies (i) the same (ii) phases (i) different (ii) phases 095

78 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft The persons not subjected to security control shall be identified Only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened Only the passengers are to be re screened

79 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC) 3 min 11 min 15 min 12 min[see Annex]

80 - The optimum altitude: Decreases as mass decreases Increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum Is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained Is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum

81 - Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of: CL and CD CL and b (wing span) CL2 and AR (aspect ratio) CL2and S (wing surface)

82 - Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. Mechanically By hydraulic accumulators Pneumatically Electrically

83 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence? Stop transmitting, DISTRESS Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY Stop transmitting, MAYDAY All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic

84 - Refer to General Student Pilot Route Manual:In the ATC flight plan Item 10, 'standard equipment' is considered to be:

VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS VHF RTF, VOR, INS and transponder VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder

85 - During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below: 5 minutes 20 minutes 15 minutes 10 minutes

86 - The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the: Speed not to be exceeded, or VNE Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy Maximum speed in operations, or VMO Minimum control speed, or VMC

87 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 338 NM True track 045W/V 225/35TAS 120 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? Distance: 218 NM Time: 85 min Distance: 169 NM Time: 85 min Distance: 120 NM Time: 46 min Distance: 185 NM Time: 72 min

88 - The difference between ( 1) a fuse and ( 2) a circuit breaker is: (1) Suitable For High Currents, (2) Not Suitable For High Currents. (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents. (1) not resettable, (2) resettable. (1) Not Resettable, (2) Not Resettable.

89 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 400 US Gallons.If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is: 1437 kg 1916 kg 2302 kg 1196 kg

90 - A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called: Reflex Change of stimulation level Control system Data processing

91 - What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ? Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight Squawk mode A code 7500 Divert to the alternate airport

92 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?

Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 6 Figure 5

93 - Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ? Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets Cloud temperature and droplet size Relative humidity inside the cloud Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil

94 - What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream? 50 kt. 70 kt. 60 kt. 100 kt.

95 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: The OPS. The operations manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency procedures'. The flight manual. The minimum equipment list.

96 - At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320 KT,is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.For a mean rate of descent of 1800 fpm at a mean GS of 232 KT, the latest time at which to commence descent is: 1L - 205 kt 1R - 295 kt 1L - 265 kt 1R - 205 kt

97 - Flight safety messages are: Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person. Operation messages concerning non-routine landings. Messages relating to direction finding. Air traffic control messages.

98 - What does the abbreviation 'AFIS' mean? Automatic flight information service. Aeronautical flight information system. Aerodrome flight information service. Aerodrome flashing identification signal.

99 - The clearance: 'cleared for immediate take-off runway 03' is: An urgency message. An unauthorized message. A flight safety message. A flight regularity message.

100 - When problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to knowledge-based activities? Unsuitability of automated actions. Unsuitability of known rules for the problem posed. There is never a transition from Rule-based and Knowledge-based behaviour. Knowledge of rules that apply for the problem.

101 - Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have: The same grivation O° magnetic dip The same variation The same horizontal magnetic field strength

102 - A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC[see Annex]

103 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions? Approved Go ahead I say again: proceed Cleared

104 - Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.Its position is now approximately:

78°45'N 087°E 80°00'N 080°E 70°15'N 080°E 79°15'N 074°E

105 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EASA OPS is: 2.500 meters 3.000 meters 5.000 meters 1.500 meters or more

106 - The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure:

A B D C

107 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft 30 minutes at cruising speed 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft 45 minutes at cruising speed

108 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Extinguish fire only. Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning. Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden. You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

109 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because: DME transmits twin pulses Reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift DME pulse recurrence rates are varied 1000 MHz

110 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route. EPM 316 kHz BIG 115.1 MHz BIG 115.1 kHz OCK 115.3 MHz[see Annex]

111 - The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a: Semi-monocoque structure. Truss type structure. Pure monocoque structure. Sandwich Structure.

112 - CRM and MCC training are designed to improve: Individual achievement The quality of crew performance The quality and a number of individuals' performance Individual efficiency and contribution

113 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by: Using the abbreviation 'OTS' followed by the code letter assigned to the track Inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message Inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude The abbreviation 'NAT' followed by the code letter assigned to the track

114 - The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is: 2 700 kg 7 000 kg 10 000 kg 5 700 kg

115 - Ozone in the air of a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by: Ozone-converters Spraying detergents Climbing to altitudes above 45,000 ft Avoiding flights along the equator

116 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 2800 NM True track 140W/V 140/100TAS 500 k What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? Distance: 1400 NM Time: 168 min Distance: 1120 NM Time: 112 min Distance: 1120 NM Time: 134 min Distance: 1680 NM Time: 252 min

117 - Refer to JAR Student Pilot Route Manual, Paris, Charles-de-Gaulle (Plate 20- 2): The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is: 83 NM 96 NM 73 NM 88 NM[see Annex]

118 - Given:TAS = 155 kt, Track (T) = 305°,W/V = 160/18kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS? 130 43 329 150

119 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyro is aligned along the: Lateral axis of the aircraft. Longitudinal axis of flight. Vertical axis of the aircraft. Longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

120 - A rescue unit is: A unit responsible for SAR service in co-operation with a RC A unit assisting a RCC in SAR duties. A unit assisting a RCC in SAR duties. a unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of SAR. A unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of SAR service and for co-ordinating the conduct of SAR within the SAR area.

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl