120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - The function of the selector valve is to:
2 - How many degrees has the mean sun moved along the celestial equator in 8 hours and 8 minutes?
3 - The Mach number:
4 - On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the 'pitch up' phenomenon:
5 - During the approach, the radio altimeter indicates 950 ft. This is:
6 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by:
7 - An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
8 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
9 - What does the abbreviation 'FIR' mean?
10 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
11 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual London, Heathrow (Plate 10- 3):Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport?
12 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'?
13 - Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
14 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
15 - In order to provide an adequate 'buffet boundary' at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3 Vs is used.At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 KT.If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3 Vs will be:
16 - During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:
17 - The purpose of the decision point procedure is:
18 - Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kgFuel requirements for flight - Trip fuel 29300 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg Alternate fuel 2800 kg.The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:
19 - Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E. Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T). The coordinates of position B are:
20 - Among the factors which affect visual acuity are:
21 - Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct?
22 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
23 - In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should be entered in item 8 (type of flight):
24 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
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25 - Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
26 - What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' mean?
27 - If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
28 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
29 - When excessively leaning the mixture for a better fuel economy, but still on the rich side of the peak EGT, the following engine parameter(s) may exceed their normal operating ranges:
30 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
31 - Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
32 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
33 - An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
34 - Creep of turbine blades is caused by:
35 - If the trailing edge flaps are lowered (fully extended), in order to maintain constant IAS and level flight:
36 - Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:
37 - What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?
38 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
39 - Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ?
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40 - An airplane is cruising at FL 220. The auto-throttle maintains a constant CAS. If the OAT decreases, the Mach number:
41 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
42 - Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should:
43 - The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold. Possible danger is:
44 - Considering an airspeed indicator, a second striped needle, if installed, indicates:
45 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
46 - A Foehn wind occurs on the
47 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
48 - An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in:
49 - At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C
50 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
51 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
52 - What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
53 - On what principle does a fuel flow meter work?
54 - The difference between IAS and TAS will:
55 - In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are
56 - Given: true course (TC) 017 W/V 340/30TAS 420 kt Find: wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
57 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
58 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
59 - What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
60 - What is meant by metabolism ?
61 - If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
62 - Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC?
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63 - An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 KT, the minimum rate of descent required is:
64 - The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:
65 - Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
66 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
67 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
68 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
69 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
70 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
71 - During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:
72 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
73 - At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the:
74 - Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:
75 - What does the word 'recleared' mean?
76 - When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
77 - Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise:
78 - The time required for complete adaptation is:
79 - The range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
80 - Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
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81 - When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station shall be in the following form:
82 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
83 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 400 US Gallons.If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is:
84 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
85 - The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is:
86 - What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
87 - Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
88 - The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
89 - VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
90 - What does the phrase 'break break' mean?
91 - With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
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92 - With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
93 - Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out:
94 - Workload essentially depends on:
95 - What is the Q-code for 'magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?
96 - A CG location beyond the aft limit leads to:
97 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?
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98 - An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?
99 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
100 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
101 - The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is
102 - What does QDM mean?
103 - What does the word 'disregard' mean?
104 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
105 - Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
106 - What can a pilot do to avoid 'Flicker vertigo' when flying in the clouds?
107 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
108 - The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is:
109 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
110 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
111 - Increase of wing loading will:
112 - If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust
113 - In the ATC flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always:
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114 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?
115 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
116 - For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed 'out' of 385 kt, a ground speed 'back' of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
117 - Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause:
118 - The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be:
119 - In meteorology, which constituent is considered the most important in the atmosphere's composition?
120 - A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to: