Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes


1 - On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens:
2 - An air data computer1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3 - Given:CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856. 5) DME 18 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853. 1) DME 30 NM,Aircraft heading 270°(M),Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position?
4 - An airspeed indicator displays:
5 - An 'Automatic Terminal Information Service' provides:
6 - Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:
7 - The formula for the Mach Number is: (a= speed of sound)
8 - The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
9 - Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local lift coefficient at the wing root?
10 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
11 - One disadvantage of wing sweep is the stalling characteristics. At the stall:
12 - The metabolisation of alcohol
13 - Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a
14 - Regarding the operating system used for an on-board documentation (charts and company information):
15 - The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
16 - Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
17 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - E HI 2An aircraft has to fly on airways from SVEDA (56°10'N 012°34'E) to SKARA (58°23'N 013°15'E).Which of the following is the correct route?
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18 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
19 - Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?1. Stress Factors (stressors)2. Errors3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning4. Human conflict5. Colour blindness
20 - Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if
21 - What are the standard masses used for crew?
22 - The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is:
23 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'.CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
24 - Given:Runway direction 083°(M) Surface W/V 035/35 KTCalculate the effective headwind component?
25 - Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure:
26 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
27 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
28 - A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:
29 - Conversion of fuel volume to mass
30 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
31 - If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
32 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
33 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
34 - Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
35 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
36 - Which weather chart gives information about icing ?
37 - According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:
38 - The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
39 - The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:
40 - A Radar Information Service (RIS) provides:
41 - Which statement about meridians is correct?
42 - The atmosphere contains the following gases:
43 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
44 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
45 - An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain
46 - On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from:
47 - An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155 KT. The pilot intends to descend at 500 fpm to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2000' (QNH 1030 hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
48 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
49 - In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
50 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
51 - Define hypoxia and explain why living tissues require oxygen.
52 - Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?
53 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
54 - For a normal and healthy person, personality traits are:
55 - Select the letter code for HB-FBO.
56 - Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
57 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
58 - A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the:
59 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
60 - The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
61 - Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?
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62 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
63 - In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non-traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
64 - The rate-of-turn is the:
65 - What does the word "NEGATIVE" mean?
66 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
67 - Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 ktThe time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
68 - Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct?
69 - What is a stressor?
70 - Which of the following statements concerning an isothermal layer in the atmosphere is correct?
71 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
72 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
73 - Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Figure 4.5.4 (Descent)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?
74 - Among the factors which affect visual acuity are:
75 - On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is
76 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyro is aligned along the:
77 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in
78 - In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is
79 - The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye:
80 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM Endurance: 2,5 hTrue Track: 035 W/V: 250/20TAS: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
81 - The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
82 - Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass?
83 - Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode Selector switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System?
84 - The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
85 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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86 - The lift formula is: (rho = density)
87 - The 'Effective Performance Time' or 'Time of Useful Consciousness' after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:
88 - Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the stream is V. An increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V will:
89 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
90 - A layer can be:
91 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'?
92 - Overcast layer of stratus clouds with bases at 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France. The QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
93 - An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:
94 - When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 1 6) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as:
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95 - At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to the datum.
96 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
97 - Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory
98 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
99 - If the control column is pushed forward, a trim tab on the elevator:
100 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
101 - In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows:
102 - A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:
103 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
104 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
105 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
106 - What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
107 - You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions: - dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- traffic load : 400 kg- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
108 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
109 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
110 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
111 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
112 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
113 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
114 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
115 - The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTCThe flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
116 - When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere:
117 - Cold air pools
118 - When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due to receiver failure' during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:
119 - In accordance with OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
120 - Refer to Figure 4.7.3 Given:Diversion distance 720NM Tail wind component 25ktMass at point of diversion 55000kg Temperature ISADiversion fuel available 4250kgWhat is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ?