Test 120 domande esame ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

Home > Simulazione d'esame > Quiz ATPL - Test di esame Airline Transport Pilot license - Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions? CI, C SC, NS. SC, NS. AS, A CS, ST.

2 - The position of a Flight Director command bars: Repeats the ADI and HSI information Enables the measurement of deviation from a given position. Indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation. Only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

3 - The rate of climb: Is angle of climb times true airspeed Is the downhill component of the true airspeed Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100

4 - Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)? Solid direct to vapour Liquid direct to vapour Liquid direct to solid Solid direct to liquid

5 - Which abbreviation is used for 'Co-ordinated universal time'? GMT. CUT. COUT. UT

6 - An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air At the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead. Ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude. At the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude. At the rear of the occlusion is less cold than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude.

7 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM? 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline

8 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 2800 NM True track 140W/V 140/100TAS 500 k What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? Distance: 1400 NM Time: 168 min Distance: 1120 NM Time: 112 min Distance: 1120 NM Time: 134 min Distance: 1680 NM Time: 252 min

9 - Refer to the Jeppesen General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course.

176° 355° 185° 004°

10 - When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will Decrease. Decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. Stay constant. Increase.

11 - In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to: The vertical component of the earth's magnetic field An apparent weight and an apparent vertical The aircraft's movement over the earth A banked attitude

12 - In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate - the air mass is described as being: Stable Conditionally unstable Absolutely unstable Unstable

13 - Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42000 kg (Fuel shift -20)Stages ( 1) to (7) and (1 1) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) at take-off is located at:

26.0 % 28.0 % 32.5 % 33.5 %

14 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: The state of registry only The International Civil Aviation Organisation The state of registry or common mark registering authority The International Telecommunication Union

15 - If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: Increase and the rate of descent will increase. Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. Increase and the rate of descent will decrease. Decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

16 - Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack? Upper side trailing edge Lower side leading edge Lower side trailing edge Upper side leading edge

17 - Given:FL120,OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt,Track is 222°(M), Heading is 215°(M), Variation is 15°W.Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN. What is the W/V? 040°(T) / 105 kt. 055°(T) / 105 kt . 050°(T) / 70 kt. 065°(T) / 70 kt.

18 - What do you do, when you are affected by 'pilot's vertigo'?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore illusions.4. Minimize head movements. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct Only 4 is false 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

19 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately: 50 NM 105 NM 210 NM Only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipment

20 - The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is: Knowledge based behaviour Skill and/or rule based behaviour Automated behaviour Pressure based behaviour

21 - On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected: Only At An Isolated Point Of The Loops Only in a uniform way along the loops At any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops On At Least One Loop

22 - An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane? Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg. Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg. Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg. Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.

23 - The effect of the wing downwash on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is: Negligible Positive Negative Smallest at high values of the lift coefficient

24 - If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC flight plan, you write: ZZZZ XXXX AAAA ////

25 - What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345? Fastair 345 No abbreviated form 2345 Fastair 45

26 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:

Left of the localizer and below the glidepath Right of the localizer and above the glidepath Left of the localizer and above the glidepath The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources

27 - The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the: Chicago convention 1944 Geneva convention 1936 Geneva convention 1948 Warsaw convention 1929

28 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft 252° 072° 254° 074°

29 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: Misalignment of the loop aerial Signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring Skywave/groundwave contamination A geoid

30 - Symptoms of decompression sickness Are only relevant when diving Are bends, chokes, creeps and neurological symptoms Are flatulence and pain in the middle ear Can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT

31 - Which degree of turbulence is described by the following ICAO definition?"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0,5 to 1,0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult. Light Severe Violent Moderate

32 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'? Readable Readable but with difficulty Perfectly readable Readable now and then

33 - Phobic states or obsessional disorders will : Always result in permanent loss of a flying licence May require successful treatment before flying may be permitted Require immediate termination of flying Result in the loss of a Class I medical classification after successful treatment

34 - What is the Q-code for 'magnetic bearing from the station'? QTE QDM QDR QFE

35 - The speed for maximum endurance Is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range. Can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

36 - For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is: The speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor The maximum speed in smooth air Just another symbol for the rough air speed The speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.

37 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus Traffic load, non-revenue load and crew standard mass. Unuseable fuel and crew standard mass. Traffic load Traffic load and potable water.

38 - An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain 090° - 232 kt 085° - 226 kt 088° - 232 kt 080° - 226 kt

39 - In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of: 110 NM 140 NM 130 NM 120 NM

40 - Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a Higher total pressure. Higher total temperature. Higher loss in total pressure. Lower static temperature.

41 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers Checked baggage, cargo and other goods And baggage Checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

42 - The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is n°

1 4 3 2

43 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed The thrust is equal to minimum drag The thrust is equal to the maximum drag

44 - A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called: Flight safety message. Distress message. Class B message. Urgency message.

45 - What does 'Friction coefficient 20' in a runway report mean: Braking action poor Braking action unreliable Braking action good Braking action medium

46 - Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system: Is Achieved By Adjusting The Neutral Point Of The Flight Control Actuator. Is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system. Is Not Possible. Is Not Necessary.

47 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by: Static interference Night effect Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces Quadrantal error

48 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be: 2 MIN 1 MIN 4 MIN 3 MIN

49 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS? 24 30 12 6

50 - Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus 15 seconds of UTC at all times 30 seconds of UTC at all times 1 minute of UTC at all times 10 seconds of UTC at all times

51 - Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ? When flying within controlled airspace When following a SID When passing the transition level In distress

52 - The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately: 27.5° 25.3° 66.5° 23.5°

53 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre.Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter.The command of the situation is the responsibility of: (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations. (1) until the completion of operations. (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3). (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).

54 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: The minimum equipment list. The OPS. The operations manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency Procedures'. The flight record.

55 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME? 4.9 NM 4.3 NM 4.6 NM 5.2 NM

56 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of: 24 months 3 months 12 months 36 months

57 - The correct drag formula is: D = CD 1/2 RHO V S D = CD 2 RHO V2 S D = CD 1/2 1/RHO V2 S D = CD 1/2 RHO V2 S

58 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight 1090 +/- 0.3 MHz

59 - Some of the FMS have a navigation mode called Dead Reckoning mode (DR), computing airspeed, heading, wind data ground speed and time. This mode is: A navigation mode used to monitor the FMS position. An operating mode used to intercept radials To or From a flight plan waypoint. The normal navigation mode for FMS which do not use Inertial navigation Systems INS to compute the aircraft position. A back up navigation mode to compute a FMS position when the other navigation sensors are no longer operating.

60 - A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times 6.8 km

61 - According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: Multiple Fatalities. Physical discomfort. Physical distress, possibly including injuries. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.

62 - In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur:Ps = static pressure.Pdyn = dynamic pressure. Ptot = total pressure. Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases

63 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of: Passengers by 10 %. Seats by 2 %. Seats by 10 %. Passengers by 2 %.

64 - With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability ( 1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability ( 2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: (1) increase (2) increase (1) increase (2) decrease (1) decrease (2) increase (1) decrease (2) decrease

65 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency? One one eight one One eighteen one One one eight point one One one eight decimal one

66 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because: The larger water droplets will give good echoes Enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence Static interference is minimised Greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

67 - Considering VR, which statement is correct? VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure

68 - An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in: A reduction in power required for a given speed An increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment An increase in longitudinal stability A reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag

69 - Standard time is: The time enforced by the legal authority to be used in a country or an area. The time used at a particular meridian. The time most frequently used for air navigation. The time which is accepted and used as a standard for the whole world.

70 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'? Repeat Words twice Say again Speak slower

71 - If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents: Neutral Nose-down Nose-left Nose-up

72 - What does 'SELCAL' mean: A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

73 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3750 ft 3350 ft 4000 ft 4300 ft

74 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: Lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

75 - In order to avoid CB a pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees. The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is: Request right turn to heading one-double-0 Request right turn to heading one-hundred degrees Request right turn to heading one-point-zero-zero Request right turn, heading one-zero-zero

76 - Which statement is correct regarding a shockwave on a lift generating wing? It reaches its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number It moves slightly aft when an aileron is deflected downward It is located at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the speed of sound It moves forward when the Mach number is increased

77 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition LevelThe vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported: As Height. As Flight Level. According to pilot's choice. As Altitude.

78 - A propeller blade is twisted, so as to Decrease The Blade Tangential Velocity From The Blade Root To The Tip. Avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena. Allow a higher mechanical stress. Keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade.

79 - The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is: 50 Hz. 200 Hz. 60 Hz. 400 hz.

80 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit: Increases the stalling speed Improves the longitudinal stability Improves the maximum range Decreases the maximum range

81 - A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A Course at B is 055°(T).What is the longitude of B? 36°W 34°W 41°W

82 - A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan

83 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: The lift-off point The point where V2 is reached The middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point The point half way between V1 and V2

84 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong? Very high frequency Medium frequency Low frequency Very low frequency

85 - The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and the: Direction of propeller axis. Local air speed vector. Principal direction of the propeller blade. Aeroplane heading.

86 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 4 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 5 NM.

87 - The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart: Is constant along a meridian of longitude Is constant along a parallel of latitude Varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude Is constant across the whole map

88 - What does the term 'broadcast' mean? A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations

89 - The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately: 20000 NM 18706 NM 34641 NM 10800 NM

90 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Montreal Convention. Hague Convention. Warsaw Convention. Tokyo Convention.

91 - What does the abbreviation 'RNAV' mean: Radar aided navigation Route navigation Area navigation Radio navigation

92 - A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a Harmattan Khamsin Pampero Scirocco

93 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 95 NM True track 105W/V 060/15TAS 140 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? 47,5 NM 82 NM 51 NM 44 NM

94 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab. The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point. The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

95 - Given are the following information at take-off____________________________________________________________ STATION....................MASS (kg)....ARM (cm)....MOMENT (kgcm)____________________________________________________________ Basic Empty Condition...12045.........+30......+361350Crew..................................145........-160.......-23200Freight ( 1)..........................570.......+200......+114000Freight ( 2)..........................410..........-40.......-16400Fuel.................................6045...........-8.......-48360Given that the flight time is 2 h and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per h. The specific density of fuel is 0.79. The 'Freight ( 2)' will be dropped during flight within the scope of a rescue action.Calculate the CG position at landing. 25 cm aft of datum 24.3 cm aft of datum 23.7 cm aft of datum 22 cm aft of datum

96 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: Control zone. Control area. Flight information region. Advisory airspace.

97 - When has the centre of gravity to be computed? At least every four years After every 400-hrs inspection During every yearly inspection Prior to every flight

98 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right? 2.0° to the right. 2.0° to the left. 1.0° to the right. 1.0° to the left.

99 - Approach procedures - CirclingThe visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around: Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact. Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach. Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions. If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground contact.

100 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar)? ...CONTROL ...RADAR ...APPROACH ...CENTRE

101 - The following unit of measurement: kgm/s2 is expressed in the SI-system as: Newton Watt Joule Pascal

102 - An aircraft magneto is switched off by:1. grounding the primary circuit.2. opening the primary circuit.3. opening the secondary circuit.4. grounding the secondary circuit.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3. 2, 3. 2, 4. 1, 4.

103 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be: Larger Smaller Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting Not change

104 - In the northern hemisphere, during a take-off run in a westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates: An apparent turn to the north. An apparent turn to the south. No apparent turn. An apparent turn to approximately the heading 255°.

105 - Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere? The arctic jet stream The polar night jet stream The subtropical jet stream The equatorial jet stream

106 - Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere? The jet streams are Easterly In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected The wind veers at the passage of a cold front

107 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence? Stop transmitting, DISTRESS Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY Stop transmitting, MAYDAY All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic

108 - The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM,To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W.Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint? 7 NM 14 NM 21 NM 0 NM

109 - When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention has to be paid to The effect they have on hearing The effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness Schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications The fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep

110 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)determine the distance.

46 NM 58 NM 32 NM 36 NM

111 - An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight? It decreases. It remains constant. It first increases, then decreases. It increases.

112 - In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi.An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi.The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads: 3000 psi 1800 psi 4200 psi 1200 Psi

113 - In a free turbine engine: Its Power Output Shaft May Be Connected To Either A Compressor Or Another Turbine. The air enters the compressor via the turbine inlet. There is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft. The Compressor And Power Output Shaft Are Mechanically Connected.

114 - What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?

-46 -47 -50 -49

115 - A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of: 170° 150° 200° 190°

116 - Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate DME-frequencies OCA or OCH

117 - The altitude alerting system: Generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude. Alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude. Alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement. Alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.

118 - In the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the code element 2 shall identify: Only the aircraft wing span. The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span. The length of the aircraft fuselage. The width of the aircraft wing.

119 - Pneumatic mechanical ice protection systems are mainly used for: Pitot Tubes. Propellers. Wings. Windscreens.

120 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is: Thrust x sin(angle of descent) Weight x sin(angle of descent) Weight x cos(angle of descent) Thrust x cos(angle of descent)

Cambia Materia Cambia Domande

ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl