Test 120 Exam questions ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

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120 questions on 120 minutes atpl

1 - How will the density and static temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it ? Density will increase, static temperature will increase. Density will decrease, static temperature will decrease. Density will decrease, static temperature will increase. Density will increase, static temperature will decrease.

2 - Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is:A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track.The tracks are not reciprocal. Procedure turn Base turn Race track Reversal procedure

3 - Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle. Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane. Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties. Lowering the landing gear.

4 - Stress management programmes usually involve: The prevention and/or the removal of stress The use of psychoactive drugs Only the prevention of stress Only the removal of stress

5 - Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the: Heading indicator. Erecting system. Amplifier. Error detector.

6 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing: Zero drift Left drift A wind from the west Right drift

7 - What does the word 'check' mean? Confirm your last transmission Read back my last instruction Examine a system or procedure I understand your message

8 - A chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that To Indicate That Seals Are Worn The piston rings are worn The oil temperature is too high There are metal particles in the oil

9 - An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response: Heading north-east at level 25 Heading 045 at 2500 feet 045 and 2500 Heading 45 at 2500 feet

10 - Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

11 - The retina of the eye Is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision Only regulates the light that falls into the eye Is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens Filters the UV-light

12 - In the ground-air emergency code the symbol "X" means: Require medical assistance. Place suitable for helicopter landing. Yes. Require assistance.

13 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft 252° 072° 254° 074°

14 - The second freedom of the air is the: Right to land for a technical stop Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Right to 'cabotage' traffic, (trans-border traffic). Right to overfly without landing

15 - When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically Through its centre of pressure. Through its centre of gravity. Through a point defined as the datum point. Through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.

16 - Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of 50 NM or more 75 NM or more 100 NM or more 60 NM or more

17 - An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B.The coordinates of position B are? 45°00'N 169°22W The coordinates of position B are? 45°00'N 169°22W 53°20'N 169°22W 53°20'N 172°38'E 45°00'N 172°38'E

18 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4:Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.

Magnetic course 282°, distance 112 KM Magnetic course 092°, distance 82 NM Magnetic course 091°, distance 54 NM Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM

19 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted: In the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines Inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage Under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations Only the 1575 MHz carrier wave and one code

20 - In the ATC flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always:

Include the aircraft registration marking Include the operating agency designator Be the RTF callsign to be used Include an indication of the aircraft type

21 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case: The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

22 - If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following the parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 KT. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of: 960 KT 480 KT 550 KT 240 KT

23 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes. 3 minutes. 10 minutes. 6 minutes.

24 - Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment to a depth greater than 10 metres is not advisable because: Has no influence on altitude flights Prevents any dangers caused by DCS (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT Will always lead to hypoxia Can cause decompression sickness even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT

25 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency? One one eight one One eighteen one One one eight point one One one eight decimal one

26 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component: Increases the climb time Increases the amount of fuel for the climb Decreases the climb time Decreases the ground distance flown during that climb

27 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop. Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length. Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.

28 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the: Air data computer Navigation database Performance database Beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode

29 - Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? 1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. 2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. 1) Is Correct, 2) Is Correct. 1) Is Correct, 2) Is Incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) Is Incorrect, 2) Is Incorrect.

30 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Intermediate approach segment. Initial approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment.

31 - Which of the following statements is/are correct?1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental functions than all the other sleep stages are. 1 is false, 2 is correct 1 and 2 are false 1 is correct, 2 is false 1 and 2 are both correct

32 - Given:Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° leftRelative bearing of NDB 270°What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft? 211° 208° 180° 221°

33 - An air mass acquires its basic properties By the influence of jet streams By stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics In the westerlies of the mid-latitudes By widespread thunderstorms

34 - When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals ? When flying VFR above clouds When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome When entering a FIR during an IFR flight When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport

35 - During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach Number: Decrease initially and increase subsequently. Remain constant. Increase. Increase initially and remain constant subsequently.

36 - The QNH is by definition the value of the: Atmospheric pressure at the location for which it is given, corrected for non-standard temperature. Altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given, reads zero. Altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given, reads the elevation. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.

37 - The length of a clearway may be included in: The take-off distance available The distance to reach V1 The take-off run available The accelerate-stop distance available

38 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of: 240 060 120 300

39 - The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs: Only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approximately 30000' Only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approximately 45000' During the whole year in the northern hemisphere During the whole year in the southern hemisphere

40 - A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation Contains its own separate gyro Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

41 - The centre of gravity is the Centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line Point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

42 - Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof? Cleared Approved Recleared Break break

43 - The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from: 50 ft to 2 500 ft The ground to 500 ft 30 ft to 5 000 ft The ground to 1 000 ft

44 - Which statement is correct? The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used

45 - Given:Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Dynamic pressure is: (Pt - Ps) / Ps (Pt - Ps) / Pt Pt / Ps Pt - Ps

46 - For aircraft call sign "Easy G-ABCD" the correct abbreviation is: Golf Charlie Delta Easy Charlie Delta Easy Delta Easy Golf Charlie Delta

47 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The clearway does not equal the stopway The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance

48 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by: The aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position Timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver The aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites 200 FT

49 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: By agreement with the receiving unit Through a central control unit With the pilot's consent Automatically at the control zone boundary

50 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? The climb limited takeoff mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb The climb limited takeoff mass decreases with increasing OAT On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited takeoff mass

51 - With the SSR transponder selected ON and "ALT" (Mode C) selected, an ATSU requests: "G-ABCD, Verify your level," this is to: Identify the aircraft position. Calibrate the radar equipment. Verify the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller. Check your altimeter setting.

52 - Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness.. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

53 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent': Cancel my last message Disregard My last transmission is cancelled Forget it

54 - When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should Always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible Avoid making up his mind until the very last minute Take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind Make up his mind before consulting other crew members

55 - The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude: Turbulence may exceed the limit load factor. Turbulence may induce Mach buffet. Mach buffet will occur immediately. A sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.

56 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received): At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged Immediately after reaching in any case 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged

57 - Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion Need to file a flight plan Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified

58 - What does the term 'Expected Approach Time' mean: The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

59 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of: 100 FT 150 FT 250 FT When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more

60 - To prevent vertigo in flight we should Look towards the sides when we make a turn Breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency Not move the head suddenly while we are turning Keep breathing normally

61 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? A high runway elevation and tail wind A low runway elevation and a head wind A high runway elevation and a head wind A low runway elevation and a cross wind

62 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because: The larger water droplets will give good echoes Enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence Static interference is minimised Greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

63 - A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling The airport is unsafe, do not land Continue circling and wait for further instructions Give way to other aircraft in emergency

64 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature: Increases the climb limited take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance Has no influence on the allowed take-off mass Decreases the field length limited take-off mass

65 - What is difference in latitude from 30°39'S 20°20'E to 45°23'N 40°40'E: 14°44'N 76°2'N 76°2'S 14°44'S

66 - The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively: (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - dt (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure

67 - Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause: Increased cruise range Reduced maximum cruise range Lower optimum cruising speed Higher stall speed

68 - How does positive camber of an aerofoil affect static longitudinal stability? Positive effect, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack Positive effect, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack Negative effect, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack

69 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed? Agreement with the destination State and inform the PI Inform the police department at the destination airport. Inform the police department at the destination airport. Notify PIC that the decision has been made to allow armed persons on board. Agreement between State of departure and airport of arrival.

70 - The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1. a microphone2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3. an independent battery4. a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2 2, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4

71 - True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if: P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS > 200 kt. P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273° K. P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS < 200 kt. P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15°

72 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: Indicated air speed (IAS). Estimated ground speed (G/S). True air speed (TAS). True air speed at 65% power.

73 - Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local lift coefficient at the wing root? Tapered Elliptical Positive angle of sweep Rectangular

74 - A laser gyro consists of: A laser generating two light waves. Two moving cavities provided with mirrors. 2 electrodes (anode and cathode). A gyro with 2 degrees of freedom.

75 - If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust Remains constant Decreases. Increases Varies according to the characteristics of the engine

76 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - E HI 2An aircraft has to fly on airways from SVEDA (56°10'N 012°34'E) to SKARA (58°23'N 013°15'E).Which of the following is the correct route?

SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UB44 SKA SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UR156 SKA UR1 HIL UV30 BTD UH42 SKA SVD UB45 LAV UR156 SKA

77 - An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kgComplete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load 7000 kg 8268 kg 1830 kg 655 kg[see Annex]

78 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall: Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible. Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.

79 - A great circle track crosses the equator at 30°W has an initial track of 035°T. It's highest or lowest North/South point is: 55°S 060°W 35°N 150°W 35°S 150°E 55°N 060°E

80 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of: The Hague Warsaw Chicago Montreal

81 - The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 15000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013,25 mb. OAT is -21°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is: 15360 ft. 14640 ft. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is: 15360 ft. 14640 ft. 572 hPa. 15000 ft.

82 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate? 5° 10° 2.5° Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

83 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: Rhumbline track Great circle track Constant magnetic track 140°

84 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? 64 000 kg 53 000 kg 99 000 kg 71 000 kg

85 - Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2. frequently changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC into VMC4. approaching over still water at night 2, 3 and 4 are correct 1, 2 and 3 are correct 1, 3 and 4 are correct 1, 2 and 4 are correct

86 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt

3100 m. 2900 m. 2700 m. 2600 m.

87 - Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm? Ground radiation Orographic lift Convergence Convection

88 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel? The owner of the aircraft. The aircraft producer. The national authority. The aircraft operator.

89 - The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they: Prevent Heat Transfer From The Brake Disks To The Tyres. Prevent the brakes from overheating. Release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure. Release air from the tyre in the event of overheating.

90 - In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered? Continental polar air. Maritime arctic air. Continental tropical air. Maritime polar air.

91 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 338 NM True track 045W/V 225/35TAS 120 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? Distance: 218 NM Time: 85 min Distance: 169 NM Time: 85 min Distance: 120 NM Time: 46 min Distance: 185 NM Time: 72 min

92 - When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include? ... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations ... MAYDAY cancelled ... cancel distress ... distress condition terminated

93 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than: 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable. 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running. 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable. 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

94 - Which statement about ST is true? The standard time at 125° W is UTC - 8h20m Standard time is the time that is determined by division of the longitude by 15 and rounding off the answer to the nearest integer In all cases the standard times at Western longitudes are slow on and at Eastern longitudes fast on UTC Standard time is determined by the government of the appropriate state and does not necessarily follow the borders of 15° wide longitude zones

95 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is: 14000 ft 25000 ft 2500 ft 8000 ft

96 - Grid heading is 299°, grid convergency is 55° West and magnetic variation is 90° West. What is the corresponding magnetic heading? 334° 154° 084° 264°

97 - The time difference in Local Mean time between sunset at position A (50°N 120°E) and B (50°S, 120°E) on the 21st of November is: Negligibly small because A and B are located at the same meridian. Some hours and the Sun rises earlier in B than in Negligibly small because A and B are located symmetrically about the equator. Some hours and the Sun rises earlier in A than in

98 - Given:True course 300° drift 8°R variation 10°W deviation -4°Calculate the compass heading. 322° 306° 278° 294°

99 - The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is:

300/100 300/140 290/110 300/160

100 - A slat will: Prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack Provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing Increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing Increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge

101 - A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that: True North is East of Magnetic North Compass North is West of Magnetic North Compass North is East of Magnetic North True North is West of Magnetic North

102 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than: 6 micro-tesla 10 micro-tesla 38 micro tesla 17 micro-tesla

103 - Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? QFE QNH QNJ QFF

104 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: 4 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 5 NM.

105 - Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the Traffic Load is normally limited by: Maximum Zero Fuel Mass. Actual Landing Mass. Maximum Take-off Mass. Maximum Landing Mass.

106 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for: Maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle Maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle Holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle Maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range

107 - What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion? Instability Stability Area of active storms Clear ice

108 - In an ATC flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of: VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles Full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres

109 - Given:Runway direction 083°(M) Surface W/V 035/35 KTCalculate the effective headwind component? 27 KT 24 KT 34 KT 31 KT

110 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag: A lower speed requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane cannot be controlled manually. A higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

111 - The speed for maximum endurance Is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range. Can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

112 - What does the phrase 'Go ahead' mean: Proceed with your message Yes Pass me the following information... Taxi on

113 - On a wing fitted with a 'Fowler' type trailing edge flap, the 'Full extended' position will produce: An unaffected wing area and increase in camber An increase in wing area and camber An increase in wing area only An unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack

114 - The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the Stability of the air Height of the aircraft Intensity of the solar radiation Intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear

115 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000' clear of obstacles.

4300 ft 1500 ft FL045 3300 ft

116 - Positive g will cause the blood-pressure to the brain to: Increase Remain constant First increase, then decrease Decrease

117 - Arrival and Approach segments, GeneralWhat are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure? Initial, intermediate, final. Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

118 - In relation to an aircraft, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aircraft structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aircraft configuration. Its value is Found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for modifications. Printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel. Found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed systems. Inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest.

119 - What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission? Read back Report readability How do you read? Read you loud and clear

120 - The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is: 1.5 2.0 3.75 2.5

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

120 questions on 120 minutes atpl