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1 - Radio waves within the VHF range (e.g. VOR) travel as... Sky wave and ground / surface wave. Ground / surface wave. Sky wave. Space wave (quasi-optical).

2 - Which statement about induced drag during the horizontal cruise flight is correct? Induced drag has a minimum at a certain speed and increases at higher as well as lower speeds Induced drag has a maximum at a certain speed and decreases at higher as well as lower speeds Induced drag increases with increasing airspeed Induced drag decreases with increasing airspeed

3 - What is the parallax error? Long-sightedness due to aging especially during night Wrong interpretation of instruments caused by the angle of vision Misperception of speed during taxiing A decoding error in communication between pilots

4 - A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... Pressure-decoder. Mode C or S transponder Mode A transponder. Transponder approved for airspace "B".

5 - Number 2 in the drawing corresponds to the... See figure (PFA-010) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1

Chord line. Chord Angle of attack. Profile thickness.

6 - A pilot receives a QDR of 315° from the VDF ground station. Where is the aircraft located in relation to the ground station? Northwest Northeast Southeast Southwest

7 - Which altitude is transmitted by the transponder in mode C? QFE altitude Pressure altitude QNH altitude Radio altitude

8 - The pressure compensation between wind upper and lower surface results in ... Laminar airflow by wing tip vortices. Profile drag by wing tip vortices. Induced drag by wing tip vortices. Lift by wing tip vortices

9 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? ( Temporary Reserved Airspace Temporary Radar Routing Area Transponder Area Terminal Area

10 - What ground features should preferrably be used for orientation during visual flight? Border lines Farm tracks and creeks Power lines Rivers, railroads, highway

11 - What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)? Oxygen transport Blood coagulation Blood sugar regulation Immune defense

12 - Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? 2000 7700 7000 7600

13 - Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication? 120.50 MHz 115.15 MHz 108.80 MHz 117.30 kHz

14 - Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure? 12000 feet 22000 feet 5000 feet 7000 feet

15 - Which are the official basic units for horizontal distances used in aeronautical navigation and their abbreviations? Feet (ft), inches (in) Nautical miles (NM), kilometers (km) Yards (yd), meters (m) Land miles (SM), sea miles (NM)

16 - The center of gravity has to be located... Between the front and the rear C.G. limit. Behind the rear C.G. limit. In front of the front C.G. limit Right of the lateral C. G. limit.

17 - What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe? Anti-knock rating Flame front speed Ignition timing Combustion temperature

18 - What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights? At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

19 - Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire? Piston engines Turbine engines Electric motors Turboprop engines

20 - Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are displayed by the... Prognostic chart. Significant Weather Chart (SWC) Surface weather chart. Hypsometric chart.

21 - The speed VS0 is defined as... Maximum landing gear extended speed Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration. Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration. Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration.

22 - In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated... Before disembarking the aircraft. During disembarking the aircraft After disembarking the aircraft at a safe distance of about 10 m. After disembarking the aircraft

23 - What does a readability of 2 indicate? The transmission is readable now and then The transmission is readable but with difficulty The transmission is perfectly readable The transmission is unreadable

24 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? Path is higher, IAS decreases Path is higher, IAS increases Path is lower, IAS decreases Path is lower, IAS increases

25 - At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)? 18000 ft 5000 ft 10000 ft 22000 ft

26 - What cloud type can typically be observed across widespread high pressure areas during summer? Overcast low stratus Scattered Cu clouds Overcast Ns clouds Squall lines and thunderstorms

27 - In straight and level flight with constant performance of the engine, the angle of attack at the wing is... Greater than in a climb. Greater than at take-off Smaller than in a descent Smaller than in a climb

28 - What is the correct way of using the aircraft call sign at first contact? Using the first two characters only Using the last two characters only Using the first three characters only Using all characters

29 - Given the following conditions, the TAS equals... Outside air temperature: -2° C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft Power: 75 % See annex (PFP-014) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 13

104 kt 100 kt. 95 kt. 110 kt

30 - The bank in a two-minute turn (rate one turn) depends on the... Weight Wind Load factor. TAS

31 - What must be considered for cross-border flights? Transmission of hazard reports Regular location messages Approved exceptions Requires flight plans

32 - Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots? Non-polarised No UV filter Curved sidepiece Unbreakable

33 - What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents

34 - Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"? A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are prevailing A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed when a taxi clearance is given

35 - In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum? Induced drag is twice as much as parasite drag Parasite drag is twice as much as induced drag Parasite drag is equal to induced drag Induced drag is smaller than parasite drag

36 - The laminar boundary layer on the aerofoil is located between... The transition point and the separation point. The stagnation point and the transition point. The transition point and the center of pressure The stagnation point and the center of pressure

37 - An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 030° to a heading of 180°. At approximately which indicated magnetic heading should the turn be terminated? 360° 150°. 210°. 180°.

38 - Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated? When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand

39 - In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600? Hijacking Emergency Flight into clouds Loss of radio

40 - Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing? A lake with an undisturbed surface A light brown field with short crops A meadow without livestock A field with ripe waving crops

41 - Rotation around the lateral axis is called... Rolling Stalling Yawing Pitching

42 - What is the function of the static rudder balance? To trim the controls almost without any force To increase the control stick forces To limit the control stick forces To prevent control surface flutter

43 - When transmitter and receiver are moving towards each other... The frequency varies, but the wavelength remains constant The perceived frequency equals the transmitted frequency The perceived frequency increases The perceived frequency decreases.

44 - Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace? Apply Want Would like Request

45 - The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately... 0.1 percent. 0.01 percent. 0.03 percent. 0.3 percent.

46 - What is the unit for voltage? Ampere Watt Ohm Volt

47 - What clouds and weather may result from an humid and instable air mass, that is pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise? Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain. Thin Altostratus and Cirrostratus clouds with light and steady precipitation. Overcast low stratus (high fog) with no precipitation. Smooth, unstructured NS cloud with light drizzle or snow (during winter)

48 - The majority of aviation accidents are caused by... Technical failure Meteorological influences. Geographical influences. Human failure.

49 - A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight. AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight. NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

50 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? Path is higher, IAS decreases Path is lower, IAS increases Path is higher, IAS increases Path is lower, IAS decreases

51 - Given: True course: 255°. TAS: 100 kt. Wind: 200°/10 kt. The true heading equals... 245° 275°. 265° 250°.

52 - Which area is suitable for an off-field landing? Harvested cornfield Glade with long dry grass Plowed field Sports area in a village

53 - What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air, is forced to rise upslope of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailling wind? Orographic fog Steaming fog Radiation fog Advection fog

54 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station? QDR QDM QTE QUJ

55 - During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected offfield landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing? Touch down with minimum speed, compensate different ground levels with power lever Approach with increased speed, push elevetor upon first ground contact Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop Approach with increased speed, avoid using wheel brakes

56 - What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean? Some water patches are visible The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water A large part of the surface is flooded The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

57 - In which situations should a pilot use blind transmissions? When no radio communication can be established with the appropriate aeronautical station, but when evidence exists that transmissions are received at that ground unit When a pilot has flown into cloud or fog unintentionally and therefore would like to request navigational assistance from a ground unit When a transmission containing important navigational or technical information is to be sent to several stations at the same time When the traffic situation at an airport allows the transmission of information which does not need to be acknowledged by the ground station

58 - What is the purpose of a ground adjustable trim tab? It is set on the ground to correct an out-of-trim condition arising from the mass and balance situation of an aircraft It is preset on the ground and further adjusted in flight to reduce the need to constantly re-trim the aircraft It is used to optimize the handling characteristics of an aircraft during ground operations It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize the inflight characteristics of an aircraft

59 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Roger"? Permission for proposed action is granted I understand your message and will comply with it I have received all of your last transmission An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is...

60 - Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request? 7600 7700 7000 7500

61 - Which of the following are an aircraft's secondary flight controls? Elevator, rudder, aileron All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems

62 - What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes? The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon The affected tyres may burst in axial direction The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown

63 - A risk factor for decompression sickness is... Smoking Sports Scuba diving prior to flight. 100 % oxygen after decompression.

64 - The angle of descent is defined as... The ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance travelled within the same time, expressed in percent [%] The angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in degrees [°]. The ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance distance travelled within the same time, expressed in degrees [°]. The angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in percent [%].

65 - What is the call sign of the flight information service? Info Advice Flight information Information

66 - The pilot receives a QDR of 225° from the VDF ground station. Where is the aircraft located in relation to the ground station? Southeast Northeast Southwest Northwest

67 - Which abbreviation is used for the term "abeam"? ABM ABB ABA ABE

68 - At what rate does the temperature change with increasing height according to ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere) within the troposphere? Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft Increases by 2° C / 1000 ft Decreases by 2° C / 100 m Increases by 2° C / 100 m

69 - What structural item provides directional stability to an airplane? Differential aileron deflection Large vertical tail Wing dihedral Large elevator

70 - A Grey-out is the result of... Hypoxia Tiredness Positive g-forces. Hyperventilation

71 - Which is the colour of runway edge lights? Red White Blue Green

72 - Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes? Overweight Smoking Sleep deficiency Alcohol consumption

73 - How does aircraft flap configuration influence the take-off performance? A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and increases lift-off speed and climb performance A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed and increases climb performance A higher flap setting increases ground roll, lift-off speed, and climb performance A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed, but also climb performance

74 - In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken? Turn off the heat Shut down the engine Turn off the master switch Use the fire extinguisher

75 - Which factor shortens landing distance? High pressure altitude Strong head wind Heavy rain High density altitude

76 - How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position? Two Three Five Four

77 - An inversion is a layer ... With increasing pressure with increasing height. With decreasing temperature with increasing height. With constant temperature with increasing height. With increasing temperature with increasing height.

78 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing from the station? QDR QUJ QDM QTE

79 - What does a readability of 1 indicate? The transmission is perfectly readable The transmission is unreadable The transmission is readable but with difficulty The transmission is readable now and then

80 - Given the following data for a VFR flight: Take-off fuel: 180 kg including reserve fuel, which is 30% of take off fuel. After half of the distance the remaining fuel is 100 kg. Assume that cruise conditions will remain unchanged. Determine the remaining fuel at the destination: 80 kg 40 kg 10 kg 20 kg

81 - What does a cloud coverage of "SCT" mean in a METAR weather report? 1 to 2 eighths 8 eighths 3 to 4 eighths 5 to 7 eighths

82 - Compared to trailing edge flaps, leading edge devices like Slots... Reduce the critical angle of attack at a given speed. Allow higher speeds at take-off and landing Produce less drag while allowing a higher angle of attack. Increase the camber and allow a lower angle of attack.

83 - What is an indication for a macho attitude? Careful walkaround procedure Comprehensive risk assessment when faced with unfamiliar situations Risky flight maneuvers to impress spectators on ground Quick resignation in complex and critical situations

84 - What is the take-off distance at 705 kg take-off mass, OAT 20° C, QNH 1013 hPa at an elevation of 3500 ft with 5 kt tailwind? See annex (PFP-009) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 9

720 m 880 m 790 m 820 m

85 - Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? See figure (AGK-007) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 5

Second stroke - compression Fourth stroke - exhaust First stroke - induction Third stroke - power

86 - Primary fuselage structures of wood or metal planes are usually made up by what components? Girders, rips and stringers Frames and stringer Rips, frames and covers Covers, stringers and forming parts

87 - Given: TC: 183°; WCA: +011°; MH: 198°; CH: 200° What are TH and VAR? TH: 194°. VAR: 004° W TH: 194°. VAR: 004° E TH: 172°. VAR: 004° W TH: 172°. VAR: 004° E

88 - An aircraft must be loaded and operated in such a way that the center of gravity (CG) stays within the approved limits during all phases of flight. This is done to ensure... That the aircraft does not exceed the maximum permissible airspeed during a descent. That the aircraft does not stall. That the aircraft does not tip over on its tail while it is being loaded. Both stability and controllability of the aircraft.

89 - What structural item provides lateral stability to an airplane? Differential aileron deflection Wing dihedral Vertical tail Elevator

90 - In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an incorrect altimeter reading? If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much greater heights above the ground than intended

91 - The speed Vx means... That a given altitude is reached within minimum distance That a given altitude is reached within minimum flight time Maximum altitude gain per 10 % power That a given altitude is reached with minimum fuel consumption

92 - Radio waves within the LF and MF range (e.g. NDB) travel as... Sky wave. Sky wave and as ground / surface wave Ground / surface wave. Space wave (quasi-optical).

93 - What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter? Changing weather with passing of frontal lines Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog Squall lines and thunderstorms

94 - According to the aeronautical chart, Friesach/Hirt (LOKH) has a 707 m grass runway. Prevailing runway is 17 due to a surface wind of 18010KT. The required landing distance for your aircraft under present conditions is 550 m. Considering the NOTAM below ,is it safe to plan LOKH as an alternate aerodrome? See figure (PFP-026) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 17

Don't know Maybe Yes No

95 - A heading of 285 degrees is correctly transmitted as... Two eight five. Two eight five hundred. Two hundred eight five. Two hundred eighty-five.

96 - (For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 22

C B A D

97 - During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and subsequently back to BOTH. What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly grounded? The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH

98 - Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator? Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure. Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum

99 - What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel? Elevator Trim rudder Aileron Rudder

100 - On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made? On the appropriate FIS frequency On a radar frequency of the lower airspace On the current frequency On a tower frequency

101 - If there is any doubt about ambiguity, a time of 1620 is to be transmitted as... Sixteen twenty Two zero One tousand six hundred two zero One six two zero

102 - What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer? Changing weather with passing of frontal lines Squall lines and thunderstorms Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu

103 - What does "WATER PATCHES" mean regarding the reported runway condition? A large part of the surface is flooded Patches of standing water are visible Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

104 - Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst? See figure (OPR-001) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1

Constant rate of descent Decrease of descent rate Increase of airspeed Decrease of climb rate

105 - What is the correct phrase to begin a blind transmission? Blind Transmitting blind No reception Listen

106 - The occurence of a vertigo is most likely when moving the head... During a straight horizontal flight. During a turn. During a descent. During a climb.

107 - How do lift and drag change when setting flaps to a lower position? Lift increases, drag decreases Lift increases, drag increases Lift decreases, drag decreases Lift decreases, drag increases

108 - What wind is reportet as 225/15 ? North-east wind with 15 kt South-west wind with 15 km/h North-east wind with 15 km/h South-west wind with 15 kt

109 - Which phrase is to be repeated three times before transmitting an urgency message? Help Urgent Pan Pan Mayday

110 - What situation is called "over-development" in a weather report? Vertical development of Cumulus clouds to rain showers Widespreading of Cumulus clouds below an inversion layer Change from blue thermals to cloudy thermals during the afternoon Development of a thermal low to a storm depression

111 - Assume calm wind and an aircraft descending from 9000 ft to 1500 ft. The rate of descent (ROD) equals 1200 ft/min. The elapsed time will be... 6 min. 15 min 12 min 8 min.

112 - The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to... Act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board. Act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft. Act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation may be obtained. Act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instrucor.

113 - Rudder deflections result in a turn of the aeroplane around the... Rudder axis Lateral axis Vertical axis. Longitudinal axis.

114 - Which curve represents the induced drag? See Appendix (PFA-011)

1 4 2 3

115 - Which navigation facility may be used for broadcasting the ATIS? GPS DME NDB VOR

116 - What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000 To obtain a clearance to enter this area

117 - Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 4? See figure (PFA-009) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 2

Center of pressure Separation point Transition point Stagnation point

118 - The critical angle of attack... Increases with a front centre of gravity. Decreases with a rear centre of gravity. Is changed by different aircraft weights. Is not changed by different aircraft weights.

119 - What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive angle of attack? Low pressure is created above, higher pressure below the profile High pressure is created above, lower pressure below the profile Pressure above remains unchanged, higher pressure is created below the profile Pressure below remains unchanged, lower pressure is created above the profile

120 - Calculated take-off mass = 1082 kg, calculated CG = 0.254 m, fuel burn = 55 l on station 0.40 m. Where is the CG situated after the landing? 24.6 cm 25.2 cm 25.4 cm 24.8 cm

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PPL(A) English - Private Pilot License (Aircraft) Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti ppl-en