Quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes


1 - Which of the following factors affects the reception of VHF transmissions?
2 - Which force causes "wind"?
3 - What danger is most immenent when an aircraft is hit by lightning?
4 - The term 'agonic line' is defined as a line on Earth or an aeronautical chart, connecting all points with the...
5 - What is the correct way to transmit the call sign OE-JVK?
6 - The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa...
7 - What describes "wing loading"?
8 - The movement of air flowing together is called...
9 - What is the great circle distance between two points A and B on the equator when the difference between the two associated meridians is exactly one degree of longitude?
10 - The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
11 - What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
12 - With regard to flaps, which of the following options provides a lift-increasing effect?
13 - How often shall a blind transmission be made?
14 - Using primary ground radar, the direction of the aeroplane in relation to the antenna is determined by...
15 - What is the parallax error?
16 - What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?
17 - The term "moment" with regard to a mass and balance calculation is referred to as...
18 - What information is NOT found on Low-Level Significant Weather Charts (LLSWC)?
19 - What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?
20 - What is the call sign of the flight information service?
21 - The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called...
22 - Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack increases?
23 - Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?
24 - What is the principle of a Fowler flap?
25 - A risk factor for decompression sickness is...
26 - In comparison to the true airspeed in still air conditions, the TAS in a strong tailwind will be...
27 - Given: True course from A to B: 352°. Ground distance: 100 NM. GS: 107 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 0933 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is...
28 - A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
29 - Calculated take-off mass = 2300 lbs, calculated CG = 95.75 in, fuel burn = 170 lbs on station 87.00 in. Where is the CG situated after the landing?
30 - What is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing, digestion, and heart frequency?
31 - Clouds in high layers are referred to as...
32 - What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right heading 220 degrees, wind 090 degrees, 5 knots, runway 12, cleared for take-off"?
33 - What is the approximate speed of electromagnetic wave propagation?
34 - Unless the aircraft is equipped and certified accordingly...
35 - Which answer is correct concerning stress?
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36 - Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace?
37 - Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct?
38 - Given the following data for a VFR flight: Trip fuel = 70 US gallons Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel Alternate and final reserve fuel = 20 US gallons Usable fuel at take-off = 95 US gallons After half of the distance you read that you have consumed 40 US gallons. Assume that fuel flow remains unchanged. Which statement is correct?
39 - Calibrated airspeed (CAS) equals...
40 - Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with different speeds and altitude. Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence?
41 - Non-directional beacons (NDBs) transmit within which frequency band?
42 - The basic empty mass of an aircraft includes...
43 - Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?
44 - During cruise flight with constant power setting, an aircraft shows a permanent tendency to raise the nose. How can this tendency be eliminated?
45 - What is the take-off distance at 705 kg take-off mass, OAT 20° C, QNH 1013 hPa at an elevation of 3500 ft with 5 kt tailwind? See annex (PFP-009) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 9
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46 - The term "runway" is defined as a...
47 - Wake turbulence is caused by...
48 - Number 2 in the drawing corresponds to the... See figure (PFA-010) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1
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49 - Which type of ice forms by large, supercooled droplets hitting the front surfaces of an aircraft?
50 - What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive angle of attack?
51 - The static pressure of gases work...
52 - Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured?
53 - In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?
54 - What is the advantage of differential aileron movement?
55 - On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made?
56 - How are rhumb lines and great circles depicted on a direct Mercator chart?
57 - What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL?
58 - What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?
59 - Which instantaneous information can be obtained from ground radar equipment?
60 - Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia?
61 - Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?
62 - Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have?
63 - The angle between the true course and the true heading is called...
64 - All aerodynamic forces can be considered to act on a single point. This point is called...
65 - What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?
66 - The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state...
67 - Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?
68 - The angle indicated by arrow number 1 shows the propeller's... See figure (AGK-011) D: Direction of air flow C: Chord line R: Direction of rotation (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 7
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69 - During an unaccelerated flight...
70 - Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?
71 - Given the following data for a VFR flight: Trip fuel = 70 US gallons Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel. Alternate and final reserve fuel = 20 US gallons Usable fuel at take-off = 90 US gallons After half of the distance you read that you have consumed 30 US gallons. Assume that fuel flow remains unchanged. Which statement is correct?
72 - The term ‚magnetic course' (MC) is defined as...
73 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IFR"?
74 - The red marking at the end of the yellow arc (5) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 8
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75 - What does the abbreviation "FIS" stand for?
76 - Which dangerous attitudes are often combined?
77 - When do you expect wind shear?
78 - Pressure compensation on an wing occurs at the...
79 - What phrase is used by a pilot to inform the tower about a go-around?
80 - In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
81 - What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)?
82 - The position of the the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile...
83 - Under which conditions "back side weather" ("Rückseitenwetter") can be expected?
84 - Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
85 - Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert?
86 - Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of...
87 - The result of a front C.G. position is: 1. Increase in stability. 2. Increase in fuel consumption. 3. Increase in stall speed. 4. Increase in range.
88 - How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent boundary layer?
89 - Given the following data: Take-Off fuel = 200 lbs Alternate fuel = 40 lbs Final reserve fuel = 30 lbs After 25 minutes the remaining fuel is 120 lbs. Assuming that fuel flow will remain unchanged, the remaining time to the destination should not exceed:
90 - What situation is called "over-development" in a weather report?
91 - Wie beeinflusst die Lufttemperatur die Leistung eines Kolbenmotors?
92 - What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz used for voice communication?
93 - The position of the center of gravity equals... See figure (PFP-052e) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1
94 - During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected offfield landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing?
95 - How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position?
96 - What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Call Hamburg Tower on 121.275"?
97 - Which abbreviation is used for the term "visual flight rules"?
98 - What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 6000 ft?
99 - Quasi-optical waves travel...
100 - Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?
101 - When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?
102 - The term "flight time" is defined as...
103 - The primer is...
104 - The directional information "12 o'clock" is correctly transmitted as...
105 - Given the following conditions, the TAS equals... Outside air temperature: -2° C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft Power: 75 % See annex (PFP-014) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 13
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106 - Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?
107 - The center of pressure is the theoretical point of origin of...
108 - What is the function of the red blood cells (erythrocytes)?
109 - In what case is visibility transmitted in meters?
110 - Given a visibility of 12 km, what is the correct way to transmit this visibility?
111 - Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? See figure (AGK-008) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 6
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112 - Given: Ground speed (GS): 160 kt. True course (TC): 177°. Wind vector (W/WS): 140°/20 kt. The true heading (TH) equals...
113 - Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port?
114 - Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected...
115 - Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
116 - What does the abbreviation "QUJ" stand for?
117 - With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?
118 - What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "no"?
119 - The differenz between indicated DME slant range and horizontal distance from the DME station increases...
120 - Which maximum rate of climb can the aircraft reach at 9000 ft pressure altitude and OAT 12° C? See annex (PFP-011) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 11
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