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Exam simulation Meteorology - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Meteorology 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
2 - For conventional airframe icing from supercooled cloud droplets, assume comparable aircraft and exposure conditions and exclude freezing rain/freezing drizzle. Which listed cloud/temperature combination is most likely to provide the highest supercooled liquid-water content?
3 - What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
4 - Rising air cools because:
5 - Immediately after an aeroplane encounters a sudden increase in horizontal tailwind, before any pilot or autopilot response and with controls and angle of attack initially unchanged, what flight-path tendency does the initial loss of airspeed and lift produce?
6 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 390?
7 - The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is
8 - Consider an idealised, nearly stationary warm-front system with stable layered cloud. Flying at FL50 away from the surface warm front and farther into the cold air ahead, you observe nimbostratus, altostratus, cirrostratus and then cirrus. Which of the following is the most typical accompanying change?
9 - Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
10 - During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
11 - A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a
12 - In the typical southwest-monsoon upper-air circulation during August, a flight from Mumbai (19°N 073°E) to Bangkok (13°N 100°E) at FL370 is most likely to experience predominantly:
13 - What does dewpoint mean?
14 - In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
15 - Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
16 - For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
17 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
18 - The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is
19 - Which statement correctly describes the broad seasonal migration of the ITCZ over land?
20 - Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?
21 - What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC on the 16th? MKJP 160430Z 1606/1706 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1613/1615 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1617/1620 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 1622/1624 34010KT FEW025=
22 - When water vapour condenses or water freezes
23 - In a non-frontal thermal depression with sufficient moisture for deep convection, which circulation pattern can produce extensive cloud and precipitation?
24 - A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind
25 - The tropopause is a level at which
26 - Which listed cloud type, normally composed mainly of ice crystals, generally presents the least risk of conventional airframe icing from supercooled liquid water?
27 - The Foehn wind is a
28 - Geostrophic wind
29 - In an idealised Southern Hemisphere case, neglecting surface friction and assuming geostrophic flow, an aircraft must correct its heading to the right to compensate for drift. Where is the low-pressure centre relative to its intended track?
30 - In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
31 - The validity of a TAF is:
32 - Solid precipitation which is transparent or translucent and has a diameter of 5mm or less formed by the freezing of raindrops or refreezing of melted snow, and usually bounces off hard surfaces, is a description of
33 - Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?
34 - For an aerodrome whose highest minimum sector altitude is no higher than 5,000 ft, with no CB or TCU present, which METAR could have its visibility, present-weather and cloud groups replaced by CAVOK?
35 - An isohypse (contour)
36 - At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
37 - What minimum wind speed is specified for a jet stream in the EASA ATPL meteorology learning objectives?
38 - During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
39 - In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
40 - Which of these conditions presents the greatest conventional airframe-icing risk from supercooled liquid water?
41 - During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?
42 - Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are south-westerly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?
43 - Advection is:
44 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
45 - In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion?
46 - Convective clouds are formed
47 - When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
48 - Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
49 - In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
50 - QNH is defined as
51 - In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
52 - Which of the following weather reports cannot be abbreviated to CAVOK because visibility is below 1 000 m and vertical visibility is reported?
53 - At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?
54 - The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
55 - What is meant by an area of divergence?
56 - A layer can be:
57 - You plan to cross a mountain range at a true altitude of 15,000 ft AMSL. The air column is 15°C colder than ISA, and the QNH for a sea-level reference is 1003 hPa. With the altimeter set to 1013.2 hPa, which indication is closest using EASA theoretical-exam altimetry approximations?
58 - Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
59 - Which statement about lightning hazards to aircraft is correct?
60 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
61 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
62 - Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
63 - Where is the greatest horizontal wind shear of a polar-front jet generally found?
64 - Which statement about moderate to severe conventional airframe icing from supercooled liquid water is correct?
65 - What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?
66 - An aeroplane maintains FL 45 over level terrain at 3,090 ft AMSL. Its radio altimeter reads 1,860 ft. The air column is approximately ISA (OAT about +6°C). Using 30 ft per hPa and a rounded standard reference of 1013 hPa, what is the estimated QNH to the nearest hPa?
67 - Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
68 - Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?
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69 - If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
70 - A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is
71 - What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe (France)?
72 - An aircraft circles an Alpine summit at its true elevation. The mean air-column temperature below the aircraft is lower than ISA, and the serviceable altimeter is set to the correct local QNH of 1013 hPa. Compared with the summit’s elevation, what will the altimeter indicate?
73 - The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
74 - The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of
75 - What does this legacy tropopause symbol represent on a SIGWX training chart?
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76 - Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
77 - Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
78 - An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
79 - Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
80 - An inversion is
81 - Which pair consists of middle-level cloud genera that can contain supercooled liquid droplets and cause airframe icing when temperatures are below freezing?
82 - Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
83 - Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
84 - If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
85 - What is the main composition of clouds classified as 'high level clouds'?
86 - In central Europe, the polar-front jet stream is normally associated with the strongest winds at which level?
87 - What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
88 - For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
89 - Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone?
90 - A selected flight level has a pressure-altitude value at least as high as a published minimum safe altitude expressed in feet AMSL. Under which pressure and air-column conditions can its true altitude be expected to be no lower than that pressure-altitude value?
91 - What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?
92 - Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
93 - In idealised frictionless anticyclonic gradient flow, why is wind speed greater than the geostrophic speed for the same pressure gradient and air density?
94 - Which geographical coordinate is most closely associated with the broad climatological decrease in tropospheric thickness from equatorial regions toward the poles?
95 - Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
96 - Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
97 - In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
98 - In an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is:
99 - The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:
100 - An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature
101 - Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are:
102 - Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?
103 - When a moist frontal air mass is lifted on the windward side of a mountain range, how is its cloud and precipitation activity usually affected?
104 - Assume the frontal system on the attached idealised 6 September 0600 UTC chart moves eastwards. At which listed airport is the following illustrative development most consistent with the approach of its warm front? TAF 060600Z 0607/0616 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0607/0610 OVC200 BECMG 0610/0613 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 0613/0616 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
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105 - What is the meaning of the expression 'FEW'?
106 - Which of the following conditions is most conducive to significant conventional airframe icing from supercooled liquid water?
107 - The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
108 - Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?
109 - An air temperature of -55°C at the 200 hPa level over central Europe in summer is
110 - Why are tropical cyclones relatively rare in the South Atlantic, although events such as Catarina and Akará demonstrate that they can occur?
111 - In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub- tropical jet streams are usually located
112 - In the classical warm-layer-aloft precipitation profile, ice pellets at the surface warn of which condition?
113 - The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of:
114 - Which listed outside-air temperature band most commonly favours clouds composed mainly of supercooled liquid-water droplets, creating the potential for conventional airframe icing?
115 - An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
116 - What does the expression 'Broken (BKN)' mean?
117 - What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
118 - You are flying at FL 120 and the outside air temperature is −2°C. Assuming the temperature rises by approximately 2°C for each 1,000 ft decrease in pressure altitude in this layer, which flight level is the approximate freezing level?
119 - In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?
120 - Which statement describes a typical Northern Hemisphere easterly wave in the trade-wind belt?