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Exam simulation Meteorology ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Meteorology 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by
2 - The temperature at FL110 is -5 °C. What will the temperature be at FL50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
3 - Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt ?
4 - In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2?
question met10.webp
5 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
6 - In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
7 - At what degree of icing should ICAO's 'Change course and/or altitude immediately' instruction be followed?
8 - With what type of cloud is '+TSRA' precipitation most commonly associated?
9 - At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
10 - A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:
11 - Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ?
12 - How does freezing rain develop?
13 - At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
14 - What characterizes a stationary front ?
15 - The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:
16 - What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?
17 - An air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over central Europe in summer is:
18 - The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
19 - At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of
20 - Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is
21 - The polar front is the boundary between:
22 - An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540', QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?
23 - Mark the correct statement concerning the flight through an inversion caused by subsidence.
24 - In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
25 - What is the classification of the air mass affecting position 'Q' at 0600 UTC?
question met5.webp
26 - Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ?
27 - What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 ft below sea level?
28 - A parcel of rising air stays unsaturated. Which of the following statements is correct?
29 - A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following wind profile (Northern hemisphere):900 hPa 220/20kt800 hPa 220/25kt700 hPa 230/35kt500 hPa 260/60kt400 hPa 280/85kt300hPa 300/100kt250hPa 310/120kt200hPa 310/80ktWhich system is the jet stream associated with?
30 - One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?
31 - How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes?
32 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
33 - What pressure is defined as QFE?
34 - The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
35 - What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?
question met13.webp
36 - Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown?
37 - Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
38 - After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter at FL 50, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
39 - Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
40 - If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
41 - Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
42 - Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ?
43 - Geostrophic wind
44 - Which degree of turbulence is described by the following ICAO definition?"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0,5 to 1,0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.
45 - Overcast layer of stratus clouds with bases at 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France. The QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
46 - The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in:
47 - From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?
48 - Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
49 - What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?
50 - For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
51 - An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 FT from A (1050 FT/AMSL - QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 FT/AMSL - QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 968 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be
52 - Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
53 - What is meant by an area of divergence?
54 - An air mass acquires its basic properties
55 - Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
56 - Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
57 - Where does polar continental air originate?
58 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
59 - What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
60 - Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in:
61 - The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the:
62 - Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left ?
question met28.webp
63 - In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ?
64 - Cumulus clouds are an indication for
65 - Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct?
66 - The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
67 - Large hail stones
68 - In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
69 - Advection fog can be formed when
70 - LFPG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 1214 1500 +RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CBWhat is the most likely visibility for landing at 13:45Z?
71 - What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer?
72 - Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
73 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
74 - Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:
75 - The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in
76 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 300?
77 - During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the
78 - Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct ?
79 - In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
80 - A super-cooled droplet is:
81 - From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
82 - Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
83 - The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
84 - Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
85 - You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
86 - Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
87 - The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when
88 - Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of
89 - Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe ?
90 - Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
91 - When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
92 - The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called
93 - What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
94 - A vertical spacing of 1000 FT is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
95 - A Foehn wind occurs on the
96 - In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
97 - Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over
98 - The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
99 - You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
100 - The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
101 - Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?
102 - Ahead of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
103 - The 0° C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of-6° C?
104 - What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
105 - The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
106 - What is the approximate maximum diameter of a the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a microburst ?
107 - An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
108 - Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the
109 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90
110 - How long does a typical microburst last?
111 - What does dewpoint mean?
112 - Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
113 - Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?
114 - When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
115 - Convective clouds are formed
116 - The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.What is the QFF?
117 - In mature Cb's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
118 - The troposphere
119 - What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
120 - Runway Visual Range (RVR) is
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