1 - What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
2 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 390?
3 - What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
4 - The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
5 - If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
6 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
7 - Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft?
8 - Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
9 - With what type of cloud is '+TSRA' precipitation most commonly associated?
10 - When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
11 - When is the RVR reported at most airports?
12 - The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
13 - With which of the following types of cloud is '+RA' precipitation most commonly associated?
14 - Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
15 - At what degree of icing can ICAO's 'No change of course and altitude necessary' recommendation be followed?
16 - Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 'CAVOK'? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
17 - Altostratus clouds are classified as
18 - What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?
19 - The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
20 - The Foehn wind is a
21 - An air temperature of -55°C at the 200 hPa level over central Europe in summer is
22 - Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
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23 - When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level?
24 - Advection fog is most likely to form when
25 - A cumulus congestus is:
26 - What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during a summer afternoon in western Europe?
27 - During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
28 - Contour heights are:
29 - In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
30 - The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
31 - Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because
32 - What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
33 - If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
34 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
35 - An inversion is a layer of air which is:
36 - What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?
37 - Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
38 - If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
39 - A cold pool
40 - What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
41 - Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)?
42 - Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures
43 - A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?
44 - Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
45 - An air mass is called stable when
46 - In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
47 - Considering the sector Rome to 25°N on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
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48 - You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.2 hPa)?
49 - You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum altitude is 15 000 ft AMSL. The air mass is on average 15°C warmer than ISA and the altimeter is set to QNH 1023 hPa. What altimeter reading corresponds to the recommended minimum altitude?
50 - The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in
51 - During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?
52 - What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?
53 - What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?
54 - The temperature at FL110 is -5 °C. What will the temperature be at FL50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
55 - Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is
56 - At what degree of icing should ICAO's 'Change of course and/or altitude desirable' recommendation be followed?
57 - In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to occur
58 - What are the characteristics of the Bora?
59 - An air mass is stable when
60 - What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
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61 - What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
62 - Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
63 - At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
64 - When fog is reported, the visibility is below
65 - Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
66 - Where does polar continental air originate?
67 - Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
68 - An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is
69 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
70 - Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?
71 - Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid- latitudes?
72 - Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
73 - What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
74 - A Foehn wind occurs on the
75 - Freezing precipitation occurs
76 - What is the meaning of the expression 'FEW'?
77 - Supercooled droplets can be encountered
78 - An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level?
79 - When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?
80 - Convective weather phenomena include:
81 - What is the approximate maximum diameter of the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a microburst?
82 - Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
83 - Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?'There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.'
84 - A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
85 - How does freezing rain develop?
86 - Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?
87 - What is signified if an occlusion is described as 'cold'?
88 - What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
89 - Clear ice forms as a result of
90 - In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
91 - Mark the correct statement concerning the flight through an inversion caused by subsidence.
92 - An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
93 - What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?
94 - When water vapour condenses or water freezes
95 - What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
96 - A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon?
97 - The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
98 - Absolute instability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate
99 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?
100 - A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind
101 - Which statement is true?
102 - From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
103 - What does dewpoint mean?
104 - When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anticyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be
105 - During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter?
106 - An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 FT from A (1050 FT/AMSL - QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 FT/AMSL - QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 968 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be
107 - An air mass is unstable when
108 - In mature Cb's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
109 - The validity of a TAF is:
110 - About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are
111 - In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
112 - A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is
113 - Geostrophic wind
114 - A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
115 - The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
116 - For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
117 - Where is a squall line to be expected?
118 - The thickness of the troposphere varies with
119 - In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =. What do you conclude based on these observations?
120 - In central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?