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Exam simulation Meteorology ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Meteorology 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The air mass affecting position "P" is most likely to be
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2 - The air mass affecting position "S" is most likely to be
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3 - Mark the correct statement concerning lightning discharge.
4 - Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?
5 - What pressure is defined as QFE?
6 - Which of the following statements concerning the use of airborne weather radar in the vicinity of thunderstorms is true?
7 - With which of the following types of cloud is '+RA' precipitation most commonly associated?
8 - When fog is reported, the visibility is below
9 - The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
10 - Clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are
11 - At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? TAF 060600Z 0607/0616 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0607/0610 OVC200 BECMG 0610/0613 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 0613/0616 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
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12 - Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
13 - The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is
14 - A vertical spacing of 1000 FT is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
15 - An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
16 - You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes. Which of the following statements is correct ?
17 - What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?
18 - Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level ?
19 - In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
20 - On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
21 - Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
22 - An air mass is called stable when
23 - An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
24 - Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the tropopause during January is approximately
25 - Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
26 - Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
27 - What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC?
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28 - What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
29 - Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
30 - In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?
31 - What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
32 - At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?
33 - In meteorology, which constituent is considered the most important in the atmosphere's composition?
34 - Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
35 - You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
36 - The Bora is a
37 - In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
38 - A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:
39 - What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?
40 - In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
41 - What is the relationship between visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog?
42 - The radiation of the sun heats
43 - During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?
44 - A strong, dry and warm downslope wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a
45 - One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?
46 - Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 'CAVOK'? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
47 - Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
48 - You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
49 - Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
50 - For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be:
51 - When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
52 - A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
53 - How long does a typical microburst last?
54 - Frontal fog is most likely to occur
55 - A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
56 - Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?
57 - Considering the sector from 10°N to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be
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58 - During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?
59 - What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
60 - An inversion is a layer of air which is:
61 - Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage, and at least temporarily, the manoeuvring ability of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?
62 - You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000' AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
63 - In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is
64 - What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?
65 - The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
66 - What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?
67 - Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
68 - Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
69 - What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
70 - Convective weather phenomena include:
71 - Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:
72 - You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
73 - What are the characteristics of the Bora?
74 - Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
75 - An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:
76 - The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
77 - Ahead of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
78 - An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540', QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate?
79 - A cumulus congestus is:
80 - With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
81 - Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level ?
82 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?
83 - A gust front is
84 - Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid- latitudes?
85 - Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?
86 - The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
87 - Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in the
88 - What is the classification of the air mass affecting position 'Q' at 0600 UTC?
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89 - In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing waves are likely to be experienced
90 - Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level ?
91 - The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
92 - What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm?
93 - If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
94 - A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by
95 - The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects
96 - Vertical wind shear is
97 - In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and the temperature at 1000 m / AGL is 13°C. This layer of air is:
98 - Where is a squall line to be expected?
99 - What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
100 - In an area of converging air
101 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 300?
102 - The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
103 - The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
104 - What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
105 - Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ?
106 - For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
107 - The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to:
108 - An air mass is unstable when
109 - At what degree of icing can ICAO's 'No change of course and altitude necessary' recommendation be followed?
110 - Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ?
111 - Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
112 - The weather associated with a cold front may vary from a minor change of wind to a serious thunderstorm with low cloud base, bad visibility and strong, gusty winds. The type of weather depends on:
113 - The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the:
114 - What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
115 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
116 - When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located?
117 - A Foehn wind occurs on the
118 - The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when:
119 - In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
120 - Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced ?
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