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Exam simulation Meteorology - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Meteorology 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate
2 - Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
3 - A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by
4 - Runway Visual Range (RVR) is
5 - At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is
6 - Assuming that an initial 'trigger' force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are
7 - A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:
8 - You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.2 hPa)?
9 - What is a trend forecast?
10 - A cumulus congestus is:
11 - Hoar frost is most likely to form when
12 - A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:
13 - A layer is conditionally unstable if the air
14 - Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
15 - The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the
16 - What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
17 - What is the relationship between visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog?
18 - The diameter of a typical tornado is
19 - Clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are
20 - A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is
21 - Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level?
22 - In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?
23 - If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
24 - A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
25 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
26 - What is a downburst?
27 - You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
28 - The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
29 - Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
30 - The Chinook is a
31 - With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months?
32 - All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
33 - Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage, and at least temporarily, the manoeuvring ability of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?
34 - The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce
35 - What is the main composition of clouds classified as 'high level clouds'?
36 - What are squall lines?
37 - The geostrophic wind depends on
38 - Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
39 - At approximately what flight level is the subtropical jet stream found?
40 - What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
41 - Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
42 - Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
43 - Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 'CAVOK'? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
44 - On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately:
45 - With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?
46 - Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
47 - What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
48 - What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?
49 - An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
question met1.webp
50 - In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
51 - The stability in a layer increases by advection of
52 - The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects
53 - Where is a squall line to be expected?
54 - Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct?
55 - How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?
56 - In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
57 - In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the
58 - How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?
59 - LFPG 221100Z 2212/2219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 2212/2214 1500 +RA OVC005 FM221430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 2216/2219 25010KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 2216/2219 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the most likely visibility for landing at 13:45Z?
60 - Frontal fog is most likely to occur
61 - Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)?
62 - The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
63 - The dry adiabatic lapse rate
64 - What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?
65 - You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes. Which of the following statements is correct?
66 - What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe (France)?
67 - An inversion is a layer of air which is:
68 - Vertical wind shear is
69 - Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms?
70 - The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of:
71 - In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
72 - If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
73 - An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately:
74 - Overcast layer of stratus clouds with bases at 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France. The QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
75 - At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?
76 - What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere?
77 - The 0° C isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of-6° C?
78 - Mark the correct statement concerning the flight through an inversion caused by subsidence.
79 - Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
80 - In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
81 - You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
82 - From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?
83 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
84 - In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when
85 - Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
86 - Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by
87 - In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
88 - Which of the following are medium level clouds?
89 - Considering the sector Rome to 25°N on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL 300 during winter?
question met14.webp
90 - A vertical spacing of 1000 FT is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
91 - What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
92 - Which statement is true?
93 - An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield (northern hemisphere) whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?
94 - With which of the following types of cloud is '+RA' precipitation most commonly associated?
95 - What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart?
96 - Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?
97 - What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS and AS cloud coverage?
98 - What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams?
99 - Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?
100 - How do air masses move at a warm front?
101 - What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 ft below sea level?
102 - In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:
103 - The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
104 - The troposphere
105 - Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?
106 - The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as:
107 - At what degree of icing should ICAO's 'Change of course and/or altitude desirable' recommendation be followed?
108 - An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature
109 - Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
110 - The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are
111 - Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
112 - Considering the route from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a
113 - The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section, the lower situated pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressure surfaces bulge downward is a:
114 - The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the:
115 - The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
116 - A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by
117 - In case of fronts, what cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?
118 - In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
119 - What is signified if an occlusion is described as 'cold'?
120 - Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the
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