Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
lingua EN angle-down

ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject Change Questions

1 - What does the word 'report' mean?
2 - Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? I. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system.
3 - The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
4 - General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
question fp18.webp
5 - With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air?
6 - Must a 'general call' be acknowledged'?
7 - A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
8 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
9 - On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart:
10 - Primary flight controls are:
11 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
12 - Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
13 - The normal rate of breathing when at rest is:
14 - What is the meaning of the phrase 'Radar service terminated'?
15 - The Leans or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:
16 - The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg. Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg. Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg. Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg. Knowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg. Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg. Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg. Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg. The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
17 - The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
18 - How should an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency 132.0083 (8.33 kHz frequency spacing)?
19 - An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 KT. The turn radius is 2000m. The load factor (n) is approximately:
20 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
21 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
22 - What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)?
question met13.webp
23 - The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:
24 - If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is to:
25 - An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155 kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 fpm to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2000' (QNH 1030 hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
26 - What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service:
27 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
28 - Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
29 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
30 - Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg. Trip fuel= 27 500 kg. Block fuel= 35 500 kg. Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
31 - What seems to be the main role of Orthodox sleep?
32 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Wait and I will call you'?
33 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
34 - What does the instruction 'Orbit right' mean?
35 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
36 - Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt. The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
37 - In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N 009°W) the tropopause is at about FL
question 033-12320A.webp
38 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
39 - Creep of turbine blades is caused by:
40 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
41 - If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air:
42 - The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
43 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
44 - Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)?
45 - An aircraft, following a 215° true track at variation 3°W, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be:
46 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
47 - Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
48 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY: 30L; Wind: 180°/10 KT; take-off Mass: 4600 lbs. Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
49 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency?
50 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
51 - An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is: (given: g = 10 m/s^2)
52 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
53 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
54 - Astigmatism is caused by:
55 - During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates:
56 - On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:
question agk3.webp
57 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
58 - A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines, the final reserve should be:
59 - For fail safe designed structural components: 1. there is more than one load carrying component. 2. one load carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough. 3. the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
60 - According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
61 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
62 - Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to such a hazard:
63 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
64 - Given: TAS = 485 kt, HDG (T) = 168°, W/V = 130/75kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
65 - The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of:
66 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
67 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
68 - What does the instruction: 'Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER' mean?
69 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
70 - Loads must be adequately secured in order to:
71 - Increase of wing loading will:
72 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
73 - To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
74 - When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?
75 - What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH?
76 - In accordance with Air OPS, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
77 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
78 - A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 min later on a relative bearing of 270°. The W/V is calm aircraft GS 180 KT. What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
79 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 kt FL 330 cruise 0.78 Mach ISA +20 °C estimated landing weight 55000 kg. Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
question 433c.webp
80 - The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
81 - Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the 'Buffet Onset Boundary' graph?
82 - The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if
83 - Absolute pressure is:
84 - Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot misinterpretation of the old three-point altimeter?
85 - What is a radiosonde?
86 - Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport?
87 - The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?
88 - Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section the pressure (i)... across the nozzle guide vanes and (ii)... across the rotor blades:
89 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
90 - In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
91 - The stability in a layer increases by advection of
92 - General provisions - amended clearance. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
93 - In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
94 - What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during a summer afternoon in western Europe?
95 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
96 - Which statement is correct? I. Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes. II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.
97 - Given: TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 145°, Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
98 - The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside is
99 - On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
100 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
101 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
102 - The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
103 - The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is:
104 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
105 - Runway Visual Range (RVR) is
106 - What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts?
107 - When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
108 - In a multi-spool turbofan engine, the fan is driven by:
109 - Holding Procedures - Buffer Area. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
110 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Endurance: 5 h True Track: 170 W/V: 140/25 TAS: 125 kt. What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
111 - The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to approximately M = 1.3 is called the:
112 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853. 1) to position N5300 W00940?
question gnav12.webp
113 - Blind transmission shall be made:
114 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
115 - Which is the most likely of the following scenarios which might lead to a conflict between status and role?
116 - The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
117 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?
question fp54.webp
118 - The Peripheral Nervous System passes information from the:
119 - An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced?
120 - The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
Change Subject Change Questions
Download mobile apps
Download mobile apps
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free

QuizVds.it - Facebook - Contact Us - Donation - Cookie Policy - Privacy Policy - Terms and Conditions - Partner