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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
2 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean?
3 - The principle of the Schuler pendulum is used in the design of a:
4 - In a twin engine jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
5 - The stability in a layer increases by advection of
6 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the magnetic course.
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7 - The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
8 - A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a
9 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
10 - An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a mass of 1000 kg. If the mass is increased to 2000 kg, the new value of the stall speed will be:
11 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 kt FL 330 cruise 0.78 Mach ISA +20 °C estimated landing weight 55000 kg. Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
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12 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine Inoperative Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of:
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13 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
14 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
15 - Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
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16 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
17 - A high aspect ratio wing produces:
18 - Hypoxia can affect night vision:
19 - Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:
20 - Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise:
21 - How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn?
22 - What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:
23 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:
24 - The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:
25 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
26 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
27 - The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of:
28 - When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than:
29 - "Kilometer" is defined as:
30 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
31 - Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro:
32 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures?
33 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
34 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
35 - In computer technology, an EPROM: 1) is a read-only memory 2) is a write memory 3) erases its content when power supply is cut off 4) keeps its content when power supply is cut off. The combination re-grouping all the correct statements is:
36 - With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?
37 - Behaviour is the outward result of ...................and is ......................:
38 - In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ... and the velocity (II) will ...:
39 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
40 - The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:
41 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
42 - Refer to Figure 4.7.3 Given: Diversion distance 720 NM Tail wind component 25 kt. Mass at point of diversion 55000 kg Temperature ISA Diversion fuel available 4250 kg. What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ?
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43 - What does the word 'wilco' mean?
44 - A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:
45 - Ozone in the air of a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by:
46 - During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
47 - Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to 'Dutch roll'?
48 - In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =. What do you conclude based on these observations?
49 - The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
50 - Given: E = electromotive force (emf), Tc = cold junction temperature, Th = hot junction temperature, K = constant. The relationship that applies to a thermocouple is:
51 - See Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1. Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions. Given: OAT: 3°C; Pressure altitude: 6000 ft; Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
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52 - The pressoreceptors are located in
53 - In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface?
54 - The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 11000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013,25 mb. QNH is 1023 hPa. OAT is +3°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
55 - Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
56 - Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that:
57 - In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
58 - On a chart, 49 NM is represented by 7 cm. What is the scale?
59 - The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:
60 - The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane: -standard taxi fuel: 600 kg. -average cruise consumption: 10000 kg/h. -holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h. -flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is:
61 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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62 - The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
63 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
64 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
65 - How does positive camber of an aerofoil affect static longitudinal stability?
66 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
67 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
68 - Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg. Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg. Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel. Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
69 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended' it is requested:
70 - When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
71 - Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
72 - When turning into a desired radial, FD bars indicate:
73 - As a result of automation in cockpits,
74 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
75 - The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
76 - The first law of Kepler states:
77 - You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
78 - When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
79 - Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
80 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
81 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
82 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
83 - A minimum time track is a:
84 - A stage in an axial compressor:
85 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
86 - A temperature sensor has a recovery factor of 0,95. The temperature measured is equal to:
87 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist:
88 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
89 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Figures 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4 Given: Distance C - D: 540 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +20°C Headwind component: 50 kt Gross mass at C: 60 000 kg. The fuel required from C to D is:
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90 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?
91 - A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:
92 - The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root)
93 - At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and parasite drag Dp? Di / Dp =
94 - An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
95 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
96 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
97 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
98 - In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR; 2 - the ceiling; 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH); 4 - the decision height (DH)
99 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
100 - Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis?
101 - Informal roles within a crew
102 - Given: TAS = 290 kt, True HDG = 171°, W/V = 310°(T)/30kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
103 - On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from:
104 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus
105 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
106 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
107 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
108 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
109 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
110 - Which statement about stick force per g is correct?
111 - During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is:
112 - When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13: 'Time' is:
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113 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
114 - What does the instruction: 'Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER' mean?
115 - An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) enroute to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?
116 - A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as:
117 - What does the word 'approved' mean?
118 - Pilot stress reactions:
119 - The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is
120 - Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
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