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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
2 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
3 - What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator?
4 - Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
5 - What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ?
6 - If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (CG) on the aircraft?
7 - What does the word 'cancel' mean?
8 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
9 - The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:
10 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
11 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
12 - The advantages of thermal anti-icing are:1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrust The combination of correct statements is:
13 - The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because:
14 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
15 - Using latitude and longitude for a place:
16 - Given the following data how much cargo must be moved from the forward hold to the aft hold to achieve a CG at 33% MAC?AUM 200000kgForward Hold Cargo 6500kg Aft hold Cargo 4000kg Distance between holds 10m Current CG: 30%MACMAC 4.6m
17 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals?
18 - Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 900 kg- Alternate fuel: 700 kg- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kgThe actual take-off mass can never be higher than:
19 - The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
20 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual: E LO 2An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is:
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21 - The first step for an individual's cure of alcoholism is:
22 - Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:
23 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
24 - What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710?
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25 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual ED-4:Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000' clear of obstacles.
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26 - Oil consumption is mainly due to
27 - Medical conditions such as high blood pressure, coronary problems and diabetes are associated with:
28 - According to JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
29 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
30 - How can wing flutter be prevented?
31 - Which one of the following is correct?
32 - By the term "transit" of a heavenly body it is understood that:
33 - In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ...:
34 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle ClearanceThe minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
35 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 3750 NM Endurance: 9,5 hTrue Track: 360 W/V: 360/50TAS: 480 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
36 - Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
37 - The Maximum Certificated Taxi (or Ramp) Mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is:
38 - Which statement is correct?I. Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.
39 - In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
40 - In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
41 - What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ?
42 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
43 - How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?
44 - On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:
45 - If you want to follow a constant true track value:
46 - An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
47 - Given:Magnetic track = 210°, Magnetic HDG = 215°, VAR = 15°E,TAS = 360 kt,Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the true W/V?
48 - An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90
49 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
50 - For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are:
51 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
52 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
53 - A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
54 - . When has the centre of gravity to be computed?
55 - What does the abbreviation 'INS' mean:
56 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
57 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?
58 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
59 - Fastair 345 has been instructed 'Standby 118.9 for TOWER'. What does this instruction mean?
60 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
61 - Judgement is based upon:
62 - Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:
63 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
64 - On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging. The combination of correct statement is:
65 - When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
66 - If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
67 - One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
68 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
69 - In accordance with OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
70 - The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
71 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?
72 - Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to 'CAVOK'?
73 - The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side. It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s 2)
74 - The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information:
75 - An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
76 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
77 - Low speed pitch up is caused by the:
78 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
79 - When turning into a desired radial, FD bars indicate:
80 - Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
81 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is:
82 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
83 - . Overloading has the following effects on performance:
84 - At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?
85 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
86 - Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
87 - Relationships between the force, pressure and area is:
88 - What is the name of the functional connection between neurones?
89 - Cataract is caused by:
90 - The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
91 - Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle takes cracking of the structure into account. 2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours.
92 - Which of the following calls is a "GENERAL CALL"?
93 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?
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94 - The deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of:
95 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
96 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
97 - If the mean Sun moves 121°30' along the equator, that equals:
98 - Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
99 - An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
100 - Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct?
101 - Given: GS = 510 kt. Distance A to B = 43 NMWhat is the time (MIN) from A to B?
102 - Given the following parameters, in a capacitance fuel gauge, the correct formula is: A = area of platesD = distance between plates E = dielectric permittivity
103 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
104 - What does the word 'approved' mean?
105 - If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is:
106 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'I understand your message and will comply with it':
107 - On the readability scale what does 'Readability 5' mean:
108 - When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
109 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
110 - At which altitude (within the "indifferent zone") may a degradation of night vision occur?
111 - What is a VDF referenced to?
112 - To achieve control flutter damping the balance mass must be located:
113 - What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
114 - In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
115 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
116 - A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
117 - The range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
118 - Given:Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressurePd = dynamic pressure
119 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
120 - What does the term 'way point' mean:
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