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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject Change Questions
1 - What is a radiosonde?
2 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
3 - Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50:
4 - After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
5 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
6 - An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:
7 - What does the term 'aeronautical station' mean?
8 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
9 - The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
10 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
11 - Which of the following answers is true?
12 - What does the instruction 'Vacate left' mean?
13 - Overloading has the following effects on performance:
14 - Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E?
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15 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
16 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
17 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
18 - When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:
19 - A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:
20 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'?
21 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
22 - Given: FL250, OAT -15 °C, TAS 250 kt. Calculate the Mach No.?
23 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
24 - What does the word 'wilco' mean?
25 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
26 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
27 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
28 - Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ATC flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: 'Total estimated time' is the time elapsed from:
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29 - The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are:
30 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 kt FL 330 cruise 0.78 Mach ISA +20 °C estimated landing weight 55000 kg. Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
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31 - An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
32 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
33 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
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34 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
35 - On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a proximate traffic is represented by:
36 - An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is: (given: g = 10 m/s^2)
37 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due to receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
38 - Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
39 - Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel. 2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
40 - The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
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41 - The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is:
42 - The Coriolis effect in spatial disorientation occurs as a result of:
43 - When climbing at a constant Mach number:
44 - What does the term 'waypoint' mean?
45 - Freezing fog consists of
46 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
47 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
48 - Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc?
49 - Aviation fuel F 34 has a density of 0.78 kg/l. What mass should be entered if 170 l are refuelled?
50 - The scale quoted on a Lambert's chart is:
51 - A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and
52 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 2'?
53 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
54 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:
55 - At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?
56 - What does the abbreviation 'RNAV' mean?
57 - If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) gets activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals:
58 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
59 - The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is
60 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine Inoperative Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of:
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61 - Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption. Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
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62 - Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit?
63 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
64 - What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
65 - Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
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66 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 h TAS: 115 kt Ground Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
67 - Select the letter code for HB-FBO.
68 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist:
69 - Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitching moment when CL = 0 is:
70 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
71 - How would you call the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions?
72 - The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:
73 - Working memory:
74 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4. Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course.
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75 - An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range. As the Mach Number increases the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires:
76 - When dangerous goods cargo is delivered for transport, responsibility for compliance with the regulations lies with the:
77 - What is the correct way of expressing visibility?
78 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
79 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
80 - If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is:
81 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
82 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
83 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
84 - If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
85 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
86 - The TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
87 - For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:
88 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
89 - The gyroscope used in an attitude indicator has a spin axis which is:
90 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height?
91 - The elements which take part in the local vertical alignment of an inertial strap-down unit are:
92 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
93 - An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows: Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp: Taxi fuel 600 kg Trip fuel 17830 kg. Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg. If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is
94 - Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as
95 - For a flight crossing more than 3 to 4 time zones with a layover longer than 24 hours, which strategy best reduces circadian rhythm disruption?
96 - The countries having a standard time slow on UTC:
97 - With the SSR transponder selected ON and "ALT" (Mode C) selected, an ATSU requests: "G-ABCD, Verify your level," this is to:
98 - When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station shall be in the following form:
99 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
100 - What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
101 - Convective clouds are formed
102 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
103 - An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) enroute to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?
104 - In what flight phase are the outboard ailerons (if present) not operated?
105 - Informal roles within a crew
106 - Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
107 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
108 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
109 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
110 - Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?
111 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyroscope is parallel to the:
112 - What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 KT?
113 - What is meant by good microphone technique?
114 - Given: Pt: total pressure, Ps: static pressure, Pd: dynamic pressure. The altimeter is fed by:
115 - What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS and AS cloud coverage?
116 - When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose up position for take- off:
117 - Given two identical aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one fitted with jet engines and the other with counter rotating propellers, what happens following an engine failure?
118 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
119 - If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the flow will:
120 - Given: Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs. Optional Equipment 35 lbs. Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs. Cargo 350 lbs. Ramp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal. Trip Fuel 35 Gal. Taxi Fuel 1.7 Gal. Final Reserve Fuel 18 Gal. Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal. Determine the expected landing mass.
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