Test 120 exam questions ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

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1 - Given: true course (TC) 017 W/V 340/30 TAS 420 kt Find: wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) WCA +2° GS 396 kt WCA -2° GS 426 kt WCA -2° GS 396 kt WCA +2° GS 416 kt

2 - Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of 'Pilot's vertigo' 'Oculogravic illusion' 'Flicker-vertigo' 'Nystagmus'

3 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?

Figure 4 Figure 3 Figure 2 Figure 5

4 - The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass. The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass. The take-off mass minus the mass of take-off fuel. The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.

5 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate? UHF SHF VHF 550 FT/MIN

6 - Flight planning chart for an aircraft states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 min and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 KT? 128 NM 193 NM 228 NM 157 NM

7 - Vision of terrain relief (e.g. hills, valleys, etc.): Is impossible with only one eye Is possible at only at distances over 200 m due to binocular vision Is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for objects that are further away Is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasses

8 - If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air: TAS decreases. Mach number increases. Mach number decreases. TAS increases.

9 - The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the: Speed not to be exceeded, or VNE Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy Maximum speed in operations, or VMO Minimum control speed, or VMC

10 - Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between Water vapour weight and dry air weight Water vapour weight and humid air volume Actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content Dew point and air temperature

11 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness. 25 hours of its operation. 20 hours of its operation. 30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.

12 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by: The ICAO document entitled 'Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air' The IATA document entitled 'Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air' The directives of the Community Union The UNO document entitled 'Dangerous Goods Regulations'

13 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for: Maximum specific range Minimum drag Minimum specific range Minimum endurance

14 - Supercooled droplets can be encountered In winter only in high clouds Only in winter above 10000 FT At any time of the year Only in winter at high altitude

15 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme, At each airport Only for administrative staff of airport For every airline operating in the State That is common for all airports within State

16 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ? NAV/RAD charts ATCC AIP NOTAM

17 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance? High temperature and high relative humidity Low temperature and low relative humidity High temperature and low relative humidity Low temperature and high relative humidity

18 - An observer is situated on the parallel of 23,5°S. Which statement about the passage of the apparent Sun in relation to this position is correct? 6L - 395 kt 2L - 420 kt 5L - 385 kt 4L - 415 kt

19 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: A frequency for air-to-air communication An international emergency frequency An airline operation frequency A regional UHF frequency

20 - Given:TAS = 140 kt, True HDG = 302°,W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle and GS? 9°L - 146 kt 9°R - 143 kt 18°R - 146 kt 16°L - 156 kt

21 - A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and The landing distance will be unaffected. The landing distance required will be longer. The approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher. The approach path will be steeper.

22 - In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is: Independent to the aircraft true airspeed Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed Proportional to the aircraft weight Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

23 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 10 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes

24 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed? ETOPS. Emergency Descent Procedure. Long Range Cruise Descent. Drift Down Procedure.

25 - Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved to (after a certain time)?

Position 3 Position 4 Position 2 Position 1

26 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as: 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more

27 - VNE is the maximum speed: Which must never be exceeded With flaps extended in landing position At which the flight controls can be fully deflected Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

28 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: Operational air traffic control centres Search and rescue co-ordination centres Air traffic co-ordination services Flight information or control organisations

29 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 2200 l. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is: 1738 kg 1798 kg 2098 kg 2785 kg

30 - A minimum time track is a: Great circle track Track determined according to wind conditions Spherical capable flight segment Rhumb line

31 - The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: There is no relationship A decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag An increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag Induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value

32 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct? V1 must not exceed VMCG V1 must not exceed VR The V1 correction for up-slope is negative When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines

33 - The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and the: Direction of propeller axis. Local air speed vector. Principal direction of the propeller blade. Aeroplane heading.

34 - Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?1. Stress Factors (stressors)2. Errors3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning4. Human conflict5. Colour blindness 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 5 only

35 - The reason that the solar day lasts longer than the sidereal day is that: The orbital track of the earth around the sun is an ellipse. Both the direction of rotation of the Earth around its axis and its orbital rotation around the sun are the same. The orbital speed of the earth around its axis diminishes slowly. The sun has an own movement through the universe opposite to the movement of the earth due to the gravitational forces of celestial bodies.

36 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 1.2Vs The speed for maximum climb angle Vx The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP The speed for maximum rate of climb

37 - Refer to E(LO)1 or attachment.What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853. 1) to position N5220 W00810? 129° - 46 NM 139° - 35 NM 212° - 26 NM 132° - 36 NM[see Annex]

38 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar)? ...CONTROL ...RADAR ...APPROACH ...CENTRE

39 - An aircraft transmitting a distress message is required to give its position as: The most accurate possible using GPS if fitted. Present or last known position, altitude or level and heading. Position relative to a VRP. Latitude and longitude.

40 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least: 15 months 12 months 24 months 3 months

41 - Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) 1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases 2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number 3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet 5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 2004. 1, 3. 1, 5. 3, 4, 2005.

42 - The chemical oxygen generator is a system 1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsaf The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 2006 1, 3, 4 2, 4, 2005 1, 4, 2006

43 - The properties of a gyroscope are: 1 - rigidity in space2 - rigidity on earth 3 - precession4 - Schuler oscillationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3. 1, 4. 1, 3. 2, 4.

44 - Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight ( 1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing ( 2) will: (1) not move (2) move forward (1) move aft, (2) move aft (1) move aft, (2) not move (1) move aft, (2) move forward

45 - For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is: A variable value which is governed by the payload carried. A fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual. A fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried. A variable value which may limit the payload carried.

46 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when The change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression 'cancelling my IFR flight'. ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR. The position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the IFR flight will then be made automatically by AT The PIC has requested and obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.

47 - How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder: Negative transponder Negative squawk Transponder not available No SSR

48 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of: 3 months 1 year 6 months 1 month

49 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? 64 000 kg 53 000 kg 99 000 kg 71 000 kg

50 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: 15 minutes or more 5 minutes or more. 20 minutes 10 minutes

51 - . The centre of gravity is the Centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line Point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

52 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? You land Let down Descend for landing Descend

53 - While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds With damping and a period of about 84 minutes. With damping and a period of 84 seconds

54 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: Electrical source fires Class B fires Special fires: metals, gas, chemical products Class A fires

55 - Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct? The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer

56 - In which of the following projections does a plane surface touch the reduced Earth at one of the Poles? Stereographic. None of the above. Lambert's. Direct Mercator.

57 - In an ATC flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as:

S3200 FL320 32000 F320

58 - The altitude alerting system: Generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude. Alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude. Alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement. Alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.

59 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 19 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 Given: brake release mass 57500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C head wind component 16 KT initial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NGM) for the climb 59 NAM 62 NGM 62 NAM 59 NGM 71 NAM 67 NGM 67 NAM 71 NGM[see Annex]

60 - On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth.The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10°N, a distance of: 117.7 NM 122.3 NM 118.2 NM 124.2 NM

61 - A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called: Reflex Change of stimulation level Control system Data processing

62 - The "constant speed propeller" has: Its Best Efficiency During Climb. In general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller. Only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same design speed. Only At The Design Speed A Better Efficiency Than The Fixed Propeller.

63 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

64 - A 'fan' stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: The High Pressure Compressor Through Reduction Gearing. The low pressure turbine. Airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor. The High Pressure Turbine.

65 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is: Unreliable Medium Poor Good

66 - In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations In the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

67 - Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to Change significantly in speed and direction Experience little or no change in speed and direction Change in direction but not in speed Change in speed but not in direction

68 - In straight and level flight, as speed is reduced: Both elevator and trim tab are deflected further upwards. The elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards. The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards. The elevator and trim tab do not move.

69 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? Both will remain the same Both will decrease Both will increase Vx will decrease and Vy will increase

70 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height? One three five zero zero One three five hundred Thirteen thousand five hundred One three thousand five hundred

71 - The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on: The emergency frequency in any case The air-ground frequency in use at the time The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned The regional guard frequency

72 - Pressure altitude is obtained by: Correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from IS Setting the altimeter to QFF pressure. Setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea level. Setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure.

73 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab. The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point. The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

74 - The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required

75 - With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is: 2 3 6 1

76 - Below its design speed an axial compressor: Has A Tendency To Surge In The Center Stages. Has no tendency to surge. Has a tendency to surge in the rear stages. Has a tendency to surge in the front stages.

77 - The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTCThe flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: 1725 UTC 1745 UTC 1715 UTC 1755 UTC

78 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more. To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°. To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more. To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

79 - In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ? Temperature at the airfield Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL Elevation of the airfield Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

80 - An air data computer1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2 3, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 4 2 and 5

81 - The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is: Pressure altitude. Mach number. OAT. Density altitude.

82 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within: 2609 m 1800 m 2 070 m 1565 m

83 - When an 'open circuit' occurs in an electrical supply system, the: Fuse Or Cb Should Isolate The Circuit Due To Excess Current Drawn. Loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning. Load as indicated by the ammeter will increase. Component Will Operate Normally, But Will Not Switch Off.

84 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold A current class II medical assessment A current class I medical assessment A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence A current class III medical assessment

85 - On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the 'true' orientation of the great circle linking point 62N 010E to point 66N 050W is 305. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is: 301 298 292 295

86 - Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure: Missed approach Going around Overshooting Pulling up

87 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible: Distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path. Distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path. Distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path. Identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

88 - The priority of the instruction 'taxi to runway 05' is: The same as 'line-up runway 07 and wait'. Less than 'cleared to land'. Greater than 'caution, construction work left of taxiway'. Greater than 'transmit for QDM'.

89 - What is the the worst hazard, if any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ? Reduced visibility Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band There is no hazard Engine flame out and windscreen damage[see Annex]

90 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites? Quartz Atomic Laser Greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

91 - The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation but excluding Usable fuel and traffic load. Usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. Potable water and lavatory chemicals. Usable fuel and crew.

92 - Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers

93 - Given the following data how much cargo must be moved from the forward hold to the aft hold to achieve a CG at 33% MAC?AUM 200000kgForward Hold Cargo 6500kg Aft hold Cargo 4000kg Distance between holds 10m Current CG: 30%MACMAC 4.6m 6000kg 2904kg 1467kg 2760kg

94 - On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB? Moving card ADF and RMI. Fixed card ADF only. Moving and fixed card ADF. Fixed card ADF and RMI.

95 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended' it is requested: To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR Acknowledge receipt of this message To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity

96 - What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? Choose a lower landing speed than normal. If possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin. Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing. Use the Mach trimmer until after landing.

97 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude.Using the following corrections:'± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation''± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice''- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is: 4.7 % 4.3 % 4.9 %

98 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is: The aircraft's stairs be completely extended. The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear. All flight crew shall remain at their station. Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

99 - Density altitude is the: Altitude read directly from the altimeter Altitude reference to the standard datum plane Height above the surface Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

100 - The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is: 15.6° 9° 5.2° 7.8°

101 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.

102 - Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane? Location of the undercarriage. The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed. Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions. The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.

103 - The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ? The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact At destination the required reserves remain intact. At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks

104 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by: Using the abbreviation 'OTS' followed by the code letter assigned to the track Inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message Inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude The abbreviation 'NAT' followed by the code letter assigned to the track

105 - The true course is 042°.The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:

040° 058° 044° 052°

106 - How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude? It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases It remains constant

107 - A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: Decreasing the skin friction Increasing the camber of the aerofoil and re-energising the airflow Increasing the critical angle of attack Increasing only the camber of the aerofoil

108 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: The actual position of the aircraft at any point in time The same as that given on the No. 1 IRS The computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc) Clear air turbulence

109 - What is the initial great circle direction from 45°N 14°12'W to 45°N 12°48'E? 270° (M). 86,5° (T). 090° (M). 80,4° (T).

110 - Which of the following systems are involved in motion sickness? 1: Hearing2: The vestibular system 3: Vision4 The proprioceptive senses 'Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense') 5: The gastrointestinal system 1,2,3 2,3,4 2,3,4,5 1,2,5

111 - If unidentified baggage is found at an airport: The baggage must be placed in a secure and isolated area in case it contains explosive devices. It is not to be transported by air. The baggage is to be subject to additional security measures. The baggage must be searched before loading on to an aeroplane.

112 - The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? More than 1016 hPa 1016 hPa Less than 1016 hPa It is not possible to give a definitive answer

113 - Which of the following is true of a land breeze? It blows by day It blows from water to land It blows only at noon It blows from land to water

114 - What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high? Sinking air Divergence at higher levels Instability Rising air

115 - At what degree of icing should ICAO's 'Change course and/or altitude immediately' instruction be followed? Light Severe Extreme Moderate

116 - RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:'X-BC squawk ident'. What does this mean: Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees X-BC shall operate the IDENT button X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code

117 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? It will increase the take-off distance available It will decrease the take-off distance It will decrease the take-off run It will increase the take-off distance

118 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine InoperativeUsing the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of: 563 NM 603 NM 584 NM 608 NM[see Annex]

119 - What does the word 'approved' mean? That is correct Permission for proposed action granted I repeat for clarity or emphasis Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified

120 - Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct? Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities Motivation will reduce the task automation process Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilities

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz atpl 120 questions on 120 minutes