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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject Change Questions
1 - What does the signal "N" mean?
2 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
3 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
4 - Select the letter code for HB-FBO.
5 - The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
6 - Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
7 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
8 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
9 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
10 - Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability?
11 - Given: TAS = 485 KT OAT = ISA +10°C FL 410. Calculate the Mach Number
12 - When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as
13 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
14 - You have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is recommended to wait at least before making a second call?
15 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
16 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow). Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
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17 - Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return. The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
18 - Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?
19 - Given: TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 145°, Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
20 - In an Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:
21 - For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
22 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
23 - Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
24 - Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause:
25 - In the northern hemisphere, during the take-off run in an easterly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
26 - A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to:
27 - What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC? MKJP 160430Z 1606/1706 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1613/1615 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1617/1620 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 1622/1624 34010KT FEW025=
28 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
29 - Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission?
30 - Approximately how long will a blood alcohol level of 60 mg / 100 ml take to return to normal?
31 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures?
32 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
33 - When turning in IMC, head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention against:
34 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
35 - The retina allows for colour perception as a result of the:
36 - A tubeless tyre has: 1 -a built-in-air tube. 2 -no built-in-air tube. 3 -a crossed side casing. 4 -a radial side casing The combination of correct statements is:
37 - Which of these statements about structural design are correct and incorrect? 1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail. 2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.
38 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
39 - Which of the following corresponds to zero fuel mass?
40 - Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
41 - In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N 009°W) the tropopause is at about FL
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42 - Which one of the statements is correct?
43 - Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are:
44 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
45 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
46 - The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of:
47 - How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?
48 - An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read:
49 - The purpose of the decision point procedure is:
50 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
51 - On a polar stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is approximately:
52 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
53 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
54 - In order to provide an adequate 'buffet boundary' at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3 Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 KT. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3 Vs will be:
55 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
56 - Must a 'general call' be acknowledged'?
57 - See Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5. Given: FL 75, Lean mixture, Full throttle, 2300 RPM. Take-off fuel: 444 lbs, Take-off from MSL. Find: Endurance in hours and minutes.
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58 - Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
59 - Which phrase is correct when advising an ATS unit that you are leaving the frequency?
60 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
61 - The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree would increase CL by 0.079. If a vertical gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees, the load factor will be:
62 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
63 - Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from
64 - What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
65 - Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a
66 - With the SSR transponder selected ON and "ALT" (Mode C) selected, an ATSU requests: "G-ABCD, Verify your level," this is to:
67 - The TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
68 - A MLS without DME-P provides:
69 - The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions 1. control of cabin altitude, 2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change, 3. limitation of differential pressure 4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude 5. cabin ventilation 6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
70 - Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
71 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
72 - What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received:
73 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
74 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
75 - Overloading has the following effects on performance:
76 - A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:
77 - Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave?
78 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:
79 - VNE is the maximum speed:
80 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
81 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
82 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
83 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4: Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
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84 - On a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...
85 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
86 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
87 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
88 - If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
89 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
90 - In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers
91 - To reduce the risk of tyre burst due to overheating, for example after heavy braking during a rejected take-off, aircraft wheels may be fitted with:
92 - Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated. 2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs. 3. With increasing stress, attention is limited thereby reducing the flow of information to the central decision maker.
93 - From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
94 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
95 - The "Break Point" is that point after which, if stress continues to rise,
96 - The correct drag formula is:
97 - The purpose of the 'Pressure Relief Valve' in a high pressure oxygen system is to:
98 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
99 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is...':
100 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
101 - An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
102 - By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
103 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
104 - Vents in oil tanks are primarily to
105 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
106 - In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as:
107 - When descending at a constant Mach number:
108 - Which of the following are included in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? 1. Freedom from pain and danger 2. Expressions of capacities and talents 3. Self-esteem needs 4. Self-fulfilment needs 5. Physiological needs
109 - The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
110 - The purpose of the contact breaker is to:
111 - What can be said concerning the following two statements? 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error.
112 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
113 - The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
114 - What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe (France)?
115 - The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the: 1. upper skin surface. 2. lower skin surface. 3. wing root fairing. 4. spar or spars. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
116 - Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls. 2) Manual flight controls should have a gust lock.
117 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
118 - Hoar frost is most likely to form when
119 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
120 - On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
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