120 questions on 120 minutes atpl


1 - The critical Mach number can be increased by
2 - What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
3 - Urgency is defined as:
4 - The touchdown areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:
5 - In the northern hemisphere, during a take-off run in a westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
6 - An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg.Certificated maximum masses are as follows:Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp:Taxi fuel 600 kg Trip fuel 17830 kgContingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is
7 - An inertial reference and navigation system is a "strapdown" system when:
8 - Geodetic latitude and geocentric latitude coincide
9 - An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
10 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
11 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY' it is requested:
12 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
13 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
14 - OCAAn OCA is referenced to:
15 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
16 - The air mass affecting position "S" is most likely to be
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17 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
18 - The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:
19 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
20 - In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?
21 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
22 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
23 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
24 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc444 4)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
25 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
26 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
27 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate ?
28 - Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:
29 - The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
30 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
31 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
32 - The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
33 - The initial great circle track from A to B is 080° and the rhumb line track is 083°. What is the initial great circle track from B to A and in which hemisphere are the two positions located?
34 - The Maximum Taxi (Ramp) Mass is governed by:
35 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
36 - An aircraft departs from Schiphol airport (STF 1 h) (52.3° N 004.8° E) and flies to Santa Cruz (17.8° S 063.2° W) in Bolivia, South America via Miami (25.8° N 080.2° W) in Florida.The departure time (off blocks) is 07:45 ST at the 10th of November, taxi time before take off Schiphol is 25 min.The flight time to Miami over the Atlantic Ocean is 09:20.The total taxi time in Miami to and from the gate is 25 min. The time spent at the gate is 02:40.From Miami to Santa Cruz the airborne time is 06:30.Calculate the time and date of touch down in Santa Cruz in ST Bolivia if the difference between ST and UTC is 4 h.
37 - Where does polar continental air originate?
38 - Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which:
39 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications.This is particularly true of the:
40 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:
41 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
42 - The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds:
43 - When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
44 - Washout is:
45 - Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. 2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
46 - If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both generators:
47 - Given:TAS = 135 kt, HDG (°T) = 278,W/V = 140/20ktCalculate the Track (°T) and GS?
48 - For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:
49 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
50 - Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?
51 - In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
52 - Which design features improve static lateral stability?1. Anhedral.2. Dihedral.3. Forward sweep.4. Sweepback.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
53 - Presbyopia is:
54 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:
55 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4:Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
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56 - The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
57 - Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
58 - A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:
59 - Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case?
60 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:
61 - The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the
62 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
63 - An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
64 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
65 - How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:
66 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
67 - What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
68 - Which of the following are included in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?1. Freedom from pain and danger2. Expressions of capacities and talents3. Self-esteem needs4. Self-fulfilment needs5. Physiological needs
69 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
70 - For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the
71 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
72 - VMO:
73 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
74 - Given:True Heading = 090° TAS = 200 ktW/V = 220° / 30 kt.Calculate the GS?
75 - Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
76 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
77 - Hard iron magnetism in aircraft may be caused by:
78 - When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is
79 - Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ?
80 - On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the 'pitch up' phenomenon:
81 - At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?
82 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:
83 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
84 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
85 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
86 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
87 - What is the convergence at 50°00'N between the meridians 105°00'W and 145°00'W on the Earth?
88 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
89 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase:
90 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
91 - In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
92 - At a given altitude, the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:
93 - How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood?
94 - On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information:
95 - A servo tab moves:
96 - The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
97 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s 2)
98 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
99 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
100 - How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:
101 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
102 - The induced angle of attack is the result of:
103 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
104 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:
105 - During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
106 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be:
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107 - Given:Position 'A' N60 W020, Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020.What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
108 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
109 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
110 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
111 - You start from P (70°00'N 015°00'E) and fly westward along the parallel of latitude for 2 hours at ground speed 220 kts. What is your position after two hours flight?
112 - What does the word 'cancel' mean?
113 - When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with:
114 - The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:
115 - Contour heights are:
116 - What does the word 'check' mean?
117 - In a steady level, co-ordinated turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:
118 - Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
119 - CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
120 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ?