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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
2 - The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between:
3 - You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions: - dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- traffic load : 400 kg- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
4 - The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be aspilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
5 - One type of flap used on aircraft moves down and increases the wing area by moving aft when lowered. This flap is known as:
6 - According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
7 - In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
8 - What does QTE mean?
9 - The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with: 1 - pitch attitude2 - accelerations3 - fuel temperatureThe combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
10 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
11 - Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
12 - If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
13 - QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
14 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
15 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least:
16 - In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
17 - Regardless of your position, time figures are transmitted with reference to:
18 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849. 1) to position N5340 W00820?
19 - . The reference about which centre of gravity moments are taken is the
20 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
21 - An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:
22 - Definitions What is:A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
23 - Approach procedures - MDH / OCHFor a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
24 - Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is:
25 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR).Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
26 - Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur?
27 - Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:
28 - A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind
29 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
30 - Given:Total mass 2900 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 115 Aft cg limit station: 116The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is:
31 - During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
32 - An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by
33 - The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:
34 - Flap selection at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase the:
35 - In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
36 - Which of the following statements concerning Earth magnetism is completely correct?
37 - In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because:
38 - A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:
39 - What does the phrase 'Go ahead' mean:
40 - When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?
41 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
42 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
43 - Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
44 - Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:
45 - Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport.
46 - The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:
47 - How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind / airflow V?
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48 - RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: 'X-BC identified'. What does this mean:
49 - An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take- off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATC flight plan its wake turbulence category is:
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50 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
51 - Planning:
52 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
53 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
54 - According to PART-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:
55 - What does the word 'check' mean?
56 - A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s):
57 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
58 - According to JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
59 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
60 - Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses
61 - The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is-15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?
62 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
63 - The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
64 - When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
65 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
66 - In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check the:
67 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
68 - An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:
69 - Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100:
70 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340°Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
71 - How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?
72 - The BEM of an aircraft is 30000 kg.Given the following data calculate the DOM: Catering = 300 kgCrew = 600 kgTrip Fuel = 1200 kg Unusable Fuel = 30 kg Traffic Load = 2500 kg
73 - The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows: (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
74 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 KTFL 330cruise 0.78 MachISA +20 ° Cestimated landing weight 55000 kg.Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
75 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
76 - In the northern hemisphere, during a take-off run in a westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
77 - The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is:
78 - On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:
79 - Communications Failure - Flight ProceduresYou are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route.At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'.At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
80 - What is the meaning of the phrase 'Radar service terminated'?
81 - When air has passed through a shock wave the local speed of sound is:
82 - A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines, the final reserve should be:
83 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means:
84 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
85 - In a twin engine jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ?
86 - Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by
87 - Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
88 - A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75.The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A
89 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
90 - What does the word 'disregard' mean?
91 - The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:
92 - The clearance: 'cleared for immediate take-off runway 03' is:
93 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are:DH = 300'Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 mThe weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200' Is take-off possible?
94 - What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
95 - The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic):
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96 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?
97 - What does the instruction 'Fastair 345 recycle 1240' mean?
98 - An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kgComplete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load
99 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
100 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
101 - Which type of flap is shown in the picture?
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102 - The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a:
103 - The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
104 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730?
105 - The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.
106 - The performance of the man machine system is above all:
107 - The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass
108 - . The Traffic Load is defined as:
109 - The frequency used for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call shall be:
110 - Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
111 - What does the abbreviation 'SSR' mean:
112 - Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
113 - The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
114 - What does the word 'negative' mean?
115 - What is a VDF referenced to?
116 - In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal depression move?
117 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
118 - On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth.The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of:
119 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
120 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
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