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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Fastair 345 has been instructed 'Standby 118.9 for TOWER'. What does this instruction mean?
2 - Given:The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kgTotal fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel The traffic load is 770 kgWhat is the Zero Fuel Mass?
3 - On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
4 - During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates:
5 - When should an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word 'Heavy' immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy?
6 - Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from:
7 - While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
8 - The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is:
9 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
10 - The changes in atmospheric gas pressure with altitude are:
11 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
12 - You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes. Which of the following statements is correct ?
13 - Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods- 3: The rods allow for night-vision- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina
14 - On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by:
15 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
16 - The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N / g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady level flight is:
17 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
18 - The heart muscle is supplied with blood by:
19 - The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...
20 - Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level ?
21 - When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with:
22 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
23 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 2800 NM True track 140W/V 140/100TAS 500 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
24 - If the total sum of moments about one of its axes is not zero, an aeroplane would:
25 - A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
26 - Given:Total mass 2900 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 115 Aft cg limit station: 116The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is:
27 - For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 2h42minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 9 kgBlock fuel: 136 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?
28 - When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
29 - The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side. It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s 2)
30 - The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
31 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean:
32 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
33 - When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
34 - Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:
35 - A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1: 1 000 000 at 60°N.The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:
36 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
37 - The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
38 - In the ATC flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing:
39 - TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:
40 - What is the definition of "morning civil twilight"?
41 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
42 - "Mean time" has been introduced in order to:
43 - Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
44 - When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
45 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 2000 NM Endurance: 5 hTAS: 500 ktGround Speed Out: 480 kt Ground Speed Home: 520 ktWhat is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
46 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
47 - What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog ?
48 - In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
49 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
50 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
51 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Endurance: 5 hTrue Track:170 W/V: 140/25TAS: 125 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
52 - An airplane is cruising at FL 220. The auto-throttle maintains a constant CAS. If the OAT decreases, the Mach number:
53 - Flutter results from two deformation modes which are:
54 - According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
55 - What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart?
56 - In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
57 - Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:
58 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
59 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 17 Figure 4.4 Holding Fuel Flow - Flaps RetractedThe final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters:
60 - A line connecting the leading edge and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil.This definition is applicable for:
61 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
62 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
63 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications.This is particularly true of the:
64 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
65 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correctionFlying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
66 - Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
67 - Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
68 - When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due to receiver failure' during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:
69 - Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase 'Standby' ?
70 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
71 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:
72 - During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments because:
73 - Someone who has anaemia has:
74 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Figures 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4 Given: Distance C - D: 540 NMCruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +20°C Headwind component: 50 ktGross mass at C: 60 000 kgThe fuel required from C to D is:
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75 - An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
76 - How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes?
77 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine InoperativeUsing the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of:
78 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
79 - During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
80 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
81 - The advantages of fly-by-wire control are 1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4. immunity to different interfering signals5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelop The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
82 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
83 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
84 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
85 - According toPART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
86 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
87 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
88 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
89 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
90 - What does the abbreviation 'SAR' mean?
91 - The skill-based, rule-based, knowledge-based model (Jens Rasmussen) is associated with:
92 - What does the term 'broadcast' mean?
93 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
94 - Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)?
95 - What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?
96 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that
97 - The risk of spatial disorientation increases when:
98 - maximum take-off mass is:
99 - The time is 9:20
100 - For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 3h06minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?
101 - A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
102 - You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
103 - One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
104 - Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew2. There is little delegating of tasks3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and laissez-faire
105 - Over-tensioned cables in a flight control system could result in:
106 - When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ?
107 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
108 - QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
109 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
110 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
111 - We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:
112 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
113 - The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
114 - Which statement is correct?
115 - The normal rate of breathing when at rest is:
116 - What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?
117 - The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'. The cone constant of this chart is approximatively:
118 - Which of the following laws explains bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues due to a decrease in atmospheric pressure?
119 - The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
120 - Engine compartment decking and firewalls are manufactured from:
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