Test 120 exam questions ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

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1 - The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is: 2 700 kg 7 000 kg 10 000 kg 5 700 kg

2 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern? A pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a different modulation Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency

3 - The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine powerplant is: An aneroid capsule. A bellows sensor. A Bourdon tube. A differential capsule.

4 - The indicated range from a DME station is: 0 when passing overhead the station. Ground range. Ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR. Slant range.

5 - When suffering from Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately at: 10,000 ft 18,000 ft 12,000 ft 25,000 ft

6 - How can the process of learning be facilitated? By increasing the psychological pressure on the student By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials By reinforcing successful efforts By reinforcing errors

7 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'? Readable Readable but with difficulty Perfectly readable Readable now and then

8 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: An increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

9 - A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by Heating up the sensor with test power connection. Checking the sensor with pressurized gas. Checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor. Checking The Continuity Of The System With A Test Switch.

10 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: Acknowledge the message immediately Impose radio silence on the frequency in use Monitor the frequency to offer assistance if required Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use

11 - An autopilot system: Must provide automatic take off functions. Must provide at least aircraft guidance functions. May provide automatic take off functions. Must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions.

12 - In the Air Almanac the highest time difference listed for difference between UTC and Standard time is maximum: 13 hours. 24 hours. 6 hours. 12 hours.

13 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?

Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 6 Figure 5

14 - Two places on the parallel of 47°S lie 757,8 km apart. Calculate the difference in longitude. 10°00' 9°19' 4°51' 4°39'

15 - The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: Passes over the outer marker. Descends below a pre-set barometric altitude. Descends below a pre-set radio altitude. Passes over the ILS inner marker.

16 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000' clear of obstacles.

4300 ft 1500 ft FL045 3300 ft

17 - A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: There is a low CO-pressure in the blood The pilot is emotionally aroused There is an increased blood flow to the brain He/she is flying a tight turn

18 - Given:Pt: total pressure Ps: static pressurePd: dynamic pressure The altimeter is fed by: Ps-Pt Ps Pd-Ps Pd

19 - The position of a Flight Director command bars: Repeats the ADI and HSI information Enables the measurement of deviation from a given position. Indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation. Only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

20 - The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are Euphoria and impairment of judgement Breathlessness and reduced night vision Sensation of heat and blurred vision Hyperventilation

21 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration: 23% 10% 20% 15%

22 - Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? Harmattan Chinook Bora Scirocco

23 - What does the term 'air-ground communication' mean? One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

24 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as: 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more

25 - Thunderstorms are often preceded by: Nimbostratus Altocumulus Castellanus Altocumulus Lenticularis Altostratus

26 - The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? The aircraft is subject to positive control The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft Position reports may be omitted The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

27 - Ergonomics are associated with: Cognition Communications The human/workplace interface Information processing

28 - A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: An area unit for the movement of aircraft. Need special precautions while approaching for landing. Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

29 - Autokinetic illusion is: The sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the opposite direction of the acceleration An illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move Poor interpretation of the surrounding world A conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations

30 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the Mature stage. Period in which precipitation is not falling. Dissipating stage. Cumulus stage.

31 - Which of the following statements is correct? The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component

32 - What does the term 'Expected Approach Time' mean: The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

33 - In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi.An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi.The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads: 3000 psi 1800 psi 4200 psi 1200 Psi

34 - VMO: Is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity Should be chosen in between VC and VD Should not be less than VD Should not be greater than VC

35 - Considering a stabilised platform inertial system: 1) The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on the same platform. 2) The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on two separated platforms. 3) The principle of operation requires at least 2 rate gyros. 4) The principle of operation requires at least 2 accelerometers.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4 2, 3 1, 4 1, 3

36 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message 6

37 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT): Increases the climb limited take-off mass Increases the field length limited take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance Decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass

38 - What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front? A polar front low A heat low A low on the lee side of a mountain A cold air pool

39 - In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs? Carbon dioxide. Oxygen. Ambient air. Carbon monoxide.

40 - The chemical oxygen generator is a system 1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsaf The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 2006 1, 3, 4 2, 4, 2005 1, 4, 2006

41 - In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by: A radiation inversion A layer of unstable air The tropopause A temperature inversion

42 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Give the frequency of ZURICH VOLMET.

127.20 kHz 127.20 MHz 118.10 MHz 128.525 MHz

43 - The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch-down) actuated by: The distance left before the touch down zone. The radio altimeter. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System). The altimeter set to the QNH.

44 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify? Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

45 - In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non-traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received: At least 1 hour in advance of arrival. At least 12 hours in advance of the expected ET At least 4 hours in advance of arrival. At least 2 hours in advance of arrival.

46 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to: A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

47 - The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were 1 to 4 at 3000 3 to 4 at 2000 1 to 2 at 3000 3 to 4 at 800[see Annex]

48 - What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ? The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land

49 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 hTAS: 115 ktGround Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? 73 NM 179 NM 255 NM 145 NM

50 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Endurance: 2 hTAS: 120 ktGround Speed Out: 135 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? Distance: 79 NM Time: 45 min Distance: 118 NM Time: 53 min Distance: 62 NM Time: 28 min Distance: 59 NM Time: 30 min

51 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: A to E (inclusive) A to G (inclusive) F and G C to G (inclusive)

52 - When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will Increase. Stay constant. Decrease. Decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

53 - Some aircraft use a fly-by-wire system to move the primary flight controls. This system is based on: Hydraulic Power Only. Electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators. Secondary Controls Such As Speed Brakes. Mechanical Power Transmitted By Steel Wires.

54 - VX is: The speed for best rate of climb The speed for best angle of climb The speed for best angle of flight path The speed for best specific range

55 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'? ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL YX-EFG, YX-FGH over YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL

56 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid: Need not undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off. Must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off. Must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off. Must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.

57 - From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively: 61600 kg and 12150 kg 60425 kg and 10975 kg 66770 kg and 17320 kg 68038 kg and 18588 kg[see Annex]

58 - What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence: Swept wings Elliptical wing Wing dihedral Straight wings

59 - Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus? Gravity alone Linear acceleration and angular acceleration Gravity and linear acceleration Angular acceleration

60 - When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ? Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign Never In dense traffic during rush hours When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so

61 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3750 ft 3350 ft 4000 ft 4300 ft

62 - What is meant by metabolism ? Information exchange The generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood Transfer of chemical messages

63 - What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: 7500 6700 7700 7600

64 - During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: Fully Closed Until The Cabin Climbs To A Selected Altitude. Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude. At the pre-set position for take-off. Partially open.

65 - The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details: Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required

66 - A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor: 8 4 1.4 2

67 - The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: Operating Mass plus all the traffic load. Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded. Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.

68 - The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. Fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

69 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Come back and land. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

70 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

71 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a: Pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM Fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM Pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM Range from cloud, wavelength / frequency used

72 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver Measures the time difference between reception of the two signals transmitted from the ground installation. Measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the signal. Measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and receiving the transponder signal. Uses pulse technique to determine the radial.

73 - On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart: Reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels Is constant throughout the chart Expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallels Is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallels

74 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as: Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. Speed is greater than 117 kt. Cross wind is greater than 15 kt. Speed is greater than 138 kt.

75 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab. The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point. The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

76 - The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the: Stator Oscillator Rotor Slip Ring

77 - Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?1. Stress Factors (stressors)2. Errors3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning4. Human conflict5. Colour blindness 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 5 only

78 - An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: 6 185 kg. 9 000 kg. 4 300 kg. 6 400 kg.

79 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'? At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited[see Annex]

80 - A "slat" is: A leading edge high lift device, hinged at its forward edge, which increases the camber and leading edge radius of the main aerofoil when deployed. A trailing edge device which is automatically deployed by movement of the stagnation point at high angles of attack. An auxiliary, cambered aerofoil positioned forward of the main aerofoil so as to form a slot. A fixed slot in the leading edge of some older types of aircraft.

81 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'.CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? 085 265 275 L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

82 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than: 150 m 100 m 75 m 50 m

83 - What is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact in an area control centre? Control Centre Control centre Radio

84 - Which FL corresponds with the 850 hPa pressure level ? FL 50 FL 390 FL 300 FL100

85 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 19 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 Given: brake release mass 57500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C head wind component 16 KT initial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NGM) for the climb 59 NAM 62 NGM 62 NAM 59 NGM 71 NAM 67 NGM 67 NAM 71 NGM[see Annex]

86 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Extinguish fire only. Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning. Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden. You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

87 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will: Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight

88 - A layer in which the temperature increases with height is Absolutely unstable Conditionally unstable Absolutely stable Neutral

89 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: Will receive signals without identification coding Only glide path information is available Can expect signals to give correct indications May receive false course indications

90 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: Engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs. Climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude. Obstacle clearance after engine failure. Weight during landing at the alternate.

91 - The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: Provide The Engine With Additional Air At High Power Settings At Cruising Speed. Feed cooling air to the engine cowling. Provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds. Serve To Increase The Relative Velocity At The First Compressor Stage.

92 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

93 - The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is: Co2 Water Powder Halon

94 - The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

95 - An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain 090° - 232 kt 085° - 226 kt 088° - 232 kt 080° - 226 kt

96 - The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions: Only in the horizontal plane In horizontal and vertical planes Only in the vertical plane Based on speed control

97 - The acquisition of skill comprises three stages (Anderson model): Cognitive, associative and knowledge Cognitive, associative and autonomous Automatic, cognitive and knowledge Associative, autonomous and expert

98 - The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1- MLS2- GPS3- VOR4- IRSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2. 1, 2, 4. 2, 3, 4. 1, 4.

99 - Aircraft told to contact Stephenville Radar on 132.010. Response if unable to comply: Negative channel 132.010 Negative frequency 132.008 Negative 8 point 3 3 Negative on 132.010

100 - Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potentia The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 2003 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 4

101 - While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds With damping and a period of about 84 minutes. With damping and a period of 84 seconds

102 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set? No, the performance will be worse than in the chart It does not matter which take-off technique is being used Yes, the chart has been made for this situation Performance will be better than in the chart

103 - The use of too low an octane fuel may cause: Higher Manifold Pressure Detonation A prompt pre-ignition reaction. A Cooling Effect On Cylinders

104 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order: Green, amber/yellow, red, magenta Amber/yellow, magenta, black Black, amber/yellow, magenta, red Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions

105 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: The licence is issued or validated The medical assessment is issued The licence is delivered to the pilot The licence is issued or renewed

106 - In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is Low and the precipitation is showers. Good and the precipitation is steady rain. Low and the precipitation is steady rain. Good and the precipitation is showers.

107 - During an erect spin recovery: The control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank The ailerons are held in the neutral position The control stick is pulled to the most aft position The control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank

108 - The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N / g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady level flight is: 225 N 150 N 450 N 375 N

109 - With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)

6675 2496,3 2548,8 2311,8

110 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than: 200 ft 300 ft 250 ft 350 ft

111 - Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and understood ? Coding. Synchronization. Feedback. Encoding.

112 - . The moment for an item is The mass of the item divided by it's distance from the datum The mass of the item multiplied by it's distance from the datum The square of the distance the item is from the datum divided by it's mass The distance the item is from the datum divided by it's mass

113 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS? The bearing to the localiser antenna found by means of a loop antenna. The difference in phase between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation. The difference in time between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation. The difference in depth between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation.

114 - If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: Read zero Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage Over-read Under-read

115 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC You will then normally be Within the organised daytime track system Within the organised night-time track system

116 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct: XY-BC X-BC BC ABC

117 - One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used Zero drop Cavity rotation Beam lock Dither

118 - Which measure(s) will help to compensate for hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical activities. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 1, 2 and 4 are correct 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false Only 1 is correct

119 - . Allowed traffic load is the difference between: Allowed take off mass and basic empty mass. Allowed take off mass and basic empty mass plus trip fuel. Operating mass and basic empty mass. Allowed take off mass and operating mass.

120 - Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ATC flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: 'Total estimated time' is the time elapsed from:

Take-off until landing. Taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing. Taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome. Take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz atpl 120 questions on 120 minutes