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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:
2 - QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
3 - When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:
4 - Refer to General Student Pilot Route Manual: In the ATC flight plan Item 10, 'standard equipment' is considered to be:
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5 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
6 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'?
7 - Before transmitting on a VFR radiotelephony frequency, the pilot should:
8 - What does the instruction 'Orbit right' mean?
9 - When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
10 - An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt, Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN. The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
11 - In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
12 - What does 'SELCAL' mean?
13 - What does the term 'broadcast' mean?
14 - What does the term 'waypoint' mean?
15 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
16 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
17 - Under a Deconfliction Service, the pilot:
18 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
19 - An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at FL310. Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given: VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication Zc: Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P: Differential pressure. This will result in a:
20 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'?
21 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
22 - For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be:
23 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than...... hours, either as pilot-in-command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated hours are respectively:
24 - The direction of the Earth's rotation on its axis is such that:
25 - In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
26 - When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
27 - Assuming no compressibility effects, induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:
28 - Loads must be adequately secured in order to:
29 - The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
30 - Approved clean-agent fire extinguishers used on aircraft are effective mainly because they:
31 - An experienced pilot:
32 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
33 - On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
34 - Machmeter readings are subject to:
35 - In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should:
36 - When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will
37 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
38 - In mature Cb's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range:
39 - What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched 'on')?
40 - An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°); The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.; TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be:
41 - For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are:
42 - What does the phrase 'Verify' mean?
43 - A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:
44 - What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?
45 - Given: TAS = 465 kt, Track (T) = 007°, W/V = 300/80kt. Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
46 - Given: A is N55° 000° B is N54° E010°The average true course of the great circle is 100°. The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
47 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
48 - An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range. As the Mach Number increases the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires:
49 - In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from:
50 - In the northern hemisphere, during a take-off run in a westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
51 - The gyromagnetic compass torque motor:
52 - Which of the following will probably not result in a deviation change on a DRC:
53 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
54 - ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot:
55 - One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar layer is that:
56 - Interference drag is the result of:
57 - Given: Total mass 2900 kg. Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115. Aft CG limit station: 116. The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is:
58 - An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
59 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
60 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
61 - Less experienced pilots differ from experienced pilots in the following way:
62 - In a vapour cycle cooling system what is the purpose of the condenser?
63 - In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by
64 - To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should
65 - An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:
66 - See Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5. Given: FL 75, Lean mixture, Full throttle, 2300 RPM. Take-off fuel: 444 lbs, Take-off from MSL. Find: Endurance in hours and minutes.
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67 - Given a maximum floor loading intensity of 650 kg per square metre, what is the maximum mass of a package that can be safely supported on a pallet measuring 80 cm by 80 cm?
68 - The message to an aeronautical ground station 'please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045' is:
69 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
70 - The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
71 - The Basic Empty Mass is 4960 kg, the Dry Operating Mass is 5220 kg and the Zero Fuel Mass is 6040 kg. If the take-off mass is 7630 kg the useful load is
72 - Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are:
73 - According to PART-FCL (and OSD data), the establishment of a separate type rating for aeroplanes is assessed based on criteria including whether the aeroplane has:
74 - Torque can be determined by measuring the computed:
75 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
76 - A fixed gas-turbine engine fire-extinguishing system typically uses:
77 - The Mach trim system allows to:
78 - In the ATC flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing:
79 - The elevators of a conventional aeroplane are used to provide rotation about the:
80 - Among the following, select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic:
81 - The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1) weight saving 2) easy fault detection 3) increase of short-circuit risk 4) reduction of short-circuit risk 5) circuits are not single-wired lines. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
82 - A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:
83 - While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system:
84 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
85 - Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
86 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
87 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
88 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
89 - Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m. Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m
90 - In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
91 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
92 - When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is:
93 - Which abbreviation is used for 'Coordinated Universal Time'?
94 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
95 - On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is
96 - Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1000 UTC, 1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
97 - Mark the correct statement concerning lightning discharge.
98 - When shall the phrase 'Take-off' be used by a pilot:
99 - One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
100 - As a cause of accidents, the human factor:
101 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
102 - During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant):
103 - In VFR radiotelephony, which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?
104 - In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation:
105 - The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:
106 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
107 - On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type:
108 - Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass?
109 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
110 - Given: Mach number M = 0.70, measured impact temperature = - 48 °C, the recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe = 0.85. The OAT is:
111 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
112 - For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg. Fuel flow for cruise 10000 kg/h. Fuel flow for holding 8000 kg/h. Alternate fuel 10200 kg. Planned flight time to destination 6 h. Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m. The minimum ramp fuel required is:
113 - The (subsonic) static pressure:
114 - What are the characteristics of the Bora?
115 - What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?
116 - What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart?
117 - What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345?
118 - The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be:
119 - When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting State as a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes:
120 - The ILS frequency and identifier for RWY 26R are:
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