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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - From the following list:1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons:
2 - Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass?
3 - When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to:
4 - Atmospheric refraction:
5 - What is the average track (M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931. 5)?
6 - Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..
7 - If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following the parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 KT. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
8 - Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is:
9 - Positive g will cause the blood-pressure to the brain to:
10 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
11 - Given that:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kgThe actual TOM can never be higher than:
12 - For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
13 - CAS is obtained from IAS by correcting for the:
14 - An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 m.How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
15 - In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means:
16 - What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
17 - Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:
18 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
19 - The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be:
20 - The temperature at FL110 is -5 °C. What will the temperature be at FL50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
21 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
22 - In his/her behaviour, the 'ideal professional pilot' is:
23 - Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:
24 - How long is 25 km at 60°00'N?
25 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
26 - Aerodrome traffic is:
27 - What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?
28 - Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes 'NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT'. In this case 'NUMBER' means:
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29 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
30 - Long range cruise is selected as
31 - The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
32 - Given:Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°WGS = 375 ktW/V = 235°(T) / 120 ktCalculate the drift angle?
33 - In order to align an IRS, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This enables the IRS to:1 - compare the computed latitude with the one entered by the pilot 2 - compare the computed longitude with the one entered by the pilot 3 - know the longitudeThe combination that regoups all of the correct statements is:
34 - Refer to the Jeppesen General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,008°24.0'E) determine the distance.
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35 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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36 - On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling.According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
37 - How many centimetres are equivalent to 36,25 inches?
38 - The formula for the Mach Number is: (a= speed of sound)
39 - You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
40 - Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift ( 1) and drag ( 2) in the stall change as follows:
41 - What does the abbreviation 'RNAV' mean:
42 - The true course is 042°.The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
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43 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
44 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
45 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
46 - The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
47 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
48 - A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s):
49 - A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:
50 - SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
51 - Before Transmitting the pilot should:
52 - Density altitude is the:
53 - Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
54 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
55 - Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
56 - The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of:
57 - Working memory:
58 - The optimum altitude:
59 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'.CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
60 - Given:Distance from departure to destination 338 NM True track 045W/V 225/35TAS 120 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
61 - If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:
62 - The Earth has been charted using:
63 - Given:Compass Heading 090 Deviation 2W Variation 12ETAS 160 KTWhilst maintaining a radial 070 from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/V (T)?
64 - Given:TAS = 465 kt, HDG (T) = 124°,W/V = 170/80kt. Calculate the drift and GS?
65 - On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:
66 - During a phugoid the speed:
67 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
68 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
69 - Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc?
70 - My message will be more effective and understandable if I:
71 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
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72 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
73 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
74 - The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
75 - The duration of civil twilight is the time:
76 - Where does polar continental air originate?
77 - Hyperventilation is:
78 - What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?
79 - A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kgThe maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
80 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
81 - A jet transport has the following structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kgThe aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements:-Taxi fuel: 400 kg-Trip fuel: 8400 kg-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg-Alternate fuel: 1100 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.
82 - The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
83 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
84 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
85 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
86 - What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer?
87 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
88 - What does 'Friction coefficient 20' in a runway report mean:
89 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E?
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90 - What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?
91 - Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level ?
92 - The frequency used for the first transmission of a 'MAYDAY' call shall be:
93 - Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:
94 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
95 - The Coriolis effect in spatial disorientation occurs as a result of:
96 - What does the abbreviation 'AFIS' mean?
97 - AC generators operated in parallel must have the same:
98 - What does the word 'report' mean?
99 - Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
100 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 400 US Gallons.If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is:
101 - At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to the datum.
102 - The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are 1 - expensive to manufacture 2 - limited airflow 3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage 4 - limited compression ratio The combination of correct answers is:
103 - The principle of damage tolerance in structural design of an aircraft is based on the:
104 - An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
105 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine InoperativeUsing the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of:
106 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
107 - The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)
108 - The operating mass of an aeroplane is:
109 - In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?
110 - An aircraft departs from Schiphol airport (STF 1 h) (52.3° N 004.8° E) and flies to Santa Cruz (17.8° S 063.2° W) in Bolivia, South America via Miami (25.8° N 080.2° W) in Florida.The departure time (off blocks) is 07:45 ST at the 10th of November, taxi time before take off Schiphol is 25 min.The flight time to Miami over the Atlantic Ocean is 09:20.The total taxi time in Miami to and from the gate is 25 min. The time spent at the gate is 02:40.From Miami to Santa Cruz the airborne time is 06:30.Calculate the time and date of touch down in Santa Cruz in ST Bolivia if the difference between ST and UTC is 4 h.
111 - The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4000 N/m2.It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5 m. Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s 2)
112 - The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
113 - The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kgLanding runway limitation: 180 000 kgPlanned fuel consumption: 11 500 kgFuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg Knowing that:Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
114 - What does the word 'cancel' mean?
115 - The altimeter of your aircraft indicates 15000 ft with a subscale-setting of 1013,25 mb. OAT is -21°C. The pressure altitude of the aircraft is:
116 - The dry atmosphere of the flight deck may cause dehydration, which may lead to a reduction in the ability to pay attention. To prevent this, it is appropriate to:
117 - For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is:
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118 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
119 - A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
120 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
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