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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Given: CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM, CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM, Aircraft heading 270°(M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position?
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2 - The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the 'General Adaptation Syndrome'. The sequence is:
3 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, assume the following circumstances: a category A aeroplane, an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting, multiple RVR information, and an acceptable alternate aerodrome available. The minimum RVR/visibility required for take-off is:
4 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
5 - What does the abbreviation 'RNAV' mean?
6 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
7 - Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
8 - During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the:
9 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
10 - What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message?
11 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
12 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
13 - During climb to cruising level, the zero-wind time is 36 min and the zero-wind distance travelled is 157 NM. What distance will be travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 kt?
14 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2000 NM Endurance: 5 h TAS: 500 kt Ground Speed Out: 480 kt Ground Speed Home: 520 kt. What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
15 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
16 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
17 - At approximately what flight level is the subtropical jet stream found?
18 - Before transmitting on a VFR radiotelephony frequency, the pilot should:
19 - The radar controller is transmitting: 'Confirm squawk'. What does he mean?
20 - Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
21 - A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that flight to Limoges.
22 - The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called:
23 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
24 - The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
25 - Which statement about stick force per g is correct?
26 - On a wing fitted with a 'Fowler' type trailing edge flap, the 'Full extended' position will produce:
27 - The correct RT call to request a Traffic Service is:
28 - You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is?
29 - The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively:
30 - Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
31 - VMO:
32 - A line connecting the leading edge and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil. This definition is applicable for:
33 - An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1483', QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5000' on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1013 hPa will indicate approximately:
34 - The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluids is:
35 - Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce:
36 - Coefficient B, as used in aircraft magnetism, presents:
37 - When approaching the International Date line from the East, you:
38 - In the directional gyro the detection system of the local vertical feeds:
39 - Given that:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg. The actual TOM can never be higher than:
40 - AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
41 - A minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Unless a different distance is specified, this altitude is valid within:
42 - In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:
43 - How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call?
44 - Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return. The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
45 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
46 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
47 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended' it is requested:
48 - The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation but excluding
49 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
50 - The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1) weight saving 2) easy fault detection 3) increase of short-circuit risk 4) reduction of short-circuit risk 5) circuits are not single-wired lines. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
51 - A radio signal loses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
52 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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53 - The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as% MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
54 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
55 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
56 - Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1: 2 000 000?
57 - What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' mean?
58 - What does the word 'correct' mean?
59 - Ahead of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
60 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
61 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
62 - Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
63 - During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a
64 - Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass?
65 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual ED-4: Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E). Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the course line in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles.
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66 - One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:
67 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
68 - What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC? MKJP 160430Z 1606/1706 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1613/1615 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1617/1620 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 1622/1624 34010KT FEW025=
69 - At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
70 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
71 - When descending at a constant Mach number:
72 - Before transmitting the pilot should:
73 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 21 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 (continued) Find: Time, Fuel, Still-Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000'
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74 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
75 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
76 - A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
77 - The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:
78 - A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:
79 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
80 - Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased?
81 - An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
82 - When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
83 - The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
84 - In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check the:
85 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
86 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
87 - What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service:
88 - What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
89 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
90 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
91 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is...':
92 - An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:
93 - A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must:
94 - The density altitude is:
95 - A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 3 704 000. What is the scale at latitude 60° S?
96 - The elements which take part in the local vertical alignment of an inertial strap-down unit are:
97 - During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked: If the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed:
98 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase:
99 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
100 - The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
101 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 17 Figure 4.4 Holding Fuel Flow - Flaps Retracted The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters:
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102 - The wavelength of a radio wave transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
103 - To avoid incapacity due to gastro-intestinal problems, it is recommended that a simple, easily digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be accompanied by:
104 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
105 - Parallax error is:
106 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
107 - An inertial reference and navigation system is a "strapdown" system when:
108 - Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?
109 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
110 - Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aircraft has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?
111 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
112 - If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
113 - Communications Failure - Flight Procedures. You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: 'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
114 - Personality is based on: 1. Heredity 2. Upbringing 3. Experience 4. Childhood
115 - At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the aircraft: 1- Dry operating mass 2- Operating mass. Which statement is correct:
116 - The airload on the horizontal tailplane (tailload) of an aeroplane in straight and level flight:
117 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
118 - An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be:
119 - Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
120 - An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?