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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:
2 - What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
3 - Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg The maximum take-off mass is equal to:
4 - A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a
5 - The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC generator in flight are: 1 - low oil pressure in the CSD.2 - slight variation about the normal operating frequency. 3 - high oil temperature in the CSD.4 - excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
6 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
7 - What is the most effective flap system?
8 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
9 - Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
10 - What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the ISA over 50°N 010°W ?
11 - Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
12 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730?
13 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
14 - The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from:
15 - An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
16 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
17 - After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ?
18 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:
19 - One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
20 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
21 - The message addressed to an Area Control Centre 'request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather' is:
22 - When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
23 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
24 - OPS 1 applies to:
25 - A volumetric top off valve on small aircraft typically works on the principle of:
26 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separationThe Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
27 - An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of
28 - A descent is planned from 7500 ft AMSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft AMSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
29 - At approximately what flight level is the subtropical jet stream found?
30 - The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:
31 - The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult at rest is (systolic/diastolic):
32 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
33 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
34 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
35 - The Peripheral Nervous System passes information from the:
36 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
37 - If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:
38 - To calculate a allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
39 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
40 - In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows:
41 - VLE is defined as the:
42 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be:
question fp21.webp
43 - Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit?
44 - During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC
45 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
46 - Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).At which time of year is the relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
47 - Given:Mach number M = 0.70measured impact temperature = - 48 °Cthe recovery factor (Kr) of the temperature probe = 0.85The OAT is:
48 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
49 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
50 - Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
51 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
52 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
53 - The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding:
54 - Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:
55 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
56 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
57 - The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
58 - . The operating mass of an aeroplane is:
59 - In what flight phase are the outboard ailerons (if present) not operated ?
60 - An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with:
61 - When an aircraft station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, the following procedure should be undertaken:
62 - What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator?
63 - An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
64 - Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
65 - What does the abbreviation 'H24' mean?
66 - What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' mean?
67 - What does the instruction 'Fastair 345 recycle 1240' mean?
68 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
69 - The term 'pressure cabin' applies when an aeroplane:
70 - A FAIL SAFE airframe construction design is:
71 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 17 Figure 4.4 Holding Fuel Flow - Flaps RetractedThe final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters:
72 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
73 - Which of the following statements concerning barotrauma are correct?
74 - The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
75 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
76 - The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
77 - The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
78 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
79 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - fires with an electrical origin4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productsWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
80 - In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil pressure.This higher pressure:
81 - The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information:
82 - Washout is:
83 - Of the following statements regarding stress, which is correct?
84 - Torque can be determined by measuring the computed:
85 - How many hours in advance of EOBT should a ATC flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
86 - What does QDR mean?
87 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
88 - The fuel tanks of aircrafts must be checked for water
89 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
90 - The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
91 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR).Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
92 - Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?
93 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
94 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
95 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 19 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 Given: brake release mass 57500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C head wind component 16 KT initial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NGM) for the climb
96 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
97 - A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
98 - Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause:
99 - A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point.At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:
question meb20.webp
100 - The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to OPS 1 depends on the approved number of:
101 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase:
102 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
103 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended' it is requested:
104 - You have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is recommended to wait at least before making a second call?
105 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
106 - Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42000 kg (Fuel shift -20)Stages ( 1) to (7) and (1 1) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) at take-off is located at:
question meb14.webp
107 - What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?
question fp27.webp
108 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
109 - An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take- off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATC flight plan its wake turbulence category is:
question fp37.webp
110 - Which of the following sequences shows the correct elements of a position report in the correct order? 1) call sign 2) reported position 3) heading (°M) 4) level or altitude 5) next position 6) ETA of the next position7) aircraft type8) time of reported position
111 - The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:
112 - In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to occur
113 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
114 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyroscope is parallel to the:
115 - If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer?
116 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
117 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
118 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
119 - The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification.2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety.4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped.
120 - The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
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