Test 120 Exam questions ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

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120 questions on 120 minutes atpl

1 - Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the: Heading indicator. Erecting system. Amplifier. Error detector.

2 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 1, 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 1 and 2 Class 1 only.

3 - The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor: Enters Via The Diffuser And Is Fed To The Impeller At The Optimum Angle Of Attack. Enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller. Enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery. Enters At A Tangent To The Rotor And Leaves Via The Stator.

4 - An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal: URGENCY, spoken three times PAN PAN, spoken three times ALERFA, spoken three times MAYDAY, spoken three times

5 - The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with: V2 1/V2 1/V V

6 - In straight and level flight, as speed is increased: The elevator and trim tab do not move. Both elevator and trim tab are deflected further downwards. The elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards. The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.

7 - The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence. The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort. The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially. The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.

8 - . For the purpose of aeroplane mass and balance calculations, the datum point is defined as: A point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added forward and aft of its location. The point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is assumed to act vertically. A variable point, that is dependent on the load distribution for its location, from which all balance arms are measured A fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis.

9 - What are the various factors which guide attention ?1. The level of automation of behaviour2. Response time3. The salience of the information4. Expectations 1,4 1,2 1,3,4 2,3,4

10 - Long range cruise is selected as The climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative. The speed for best economy. Specific range with tailwind. The higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

11 - Which of the following statements, relating to the application of Ohm's Law, is the most correct? Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force. Current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force. Power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current. The Current In A Circuit Is Directly Proportional To The Resistance Of The Circuit.

12 - The spin axis of the turn indicator gyroscope is parallel to the: Pitch axis. Yaw axis. Roll axis. Longitudinal axis.

13 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within: One hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. Two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed. Two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. One hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.

14 - Does the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence? Yes strongly Yes slightly Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine No

15 - The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet: 1 - throughout the operating range of the engine 2 - for ground starts 3 - for accelerations 4 - for in-flight relights 5 - during turbulence in flight 6 - in heavy precipitation or in icing conditions The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 6 2, 3, 2004 3 And 6 Only

16 - An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: 6 185 kg. 9 000 kg. 4 300 kg. 6 400 kg.

17 - The take-off distance available is: The runway length plus half of the clearway The runway length minus stopway The total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available

18 - Which of the following is true of a land breeze? It blows by day It blows from water to land It blows only at noon It blows from land to water

19 - Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kgTrip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel= 5% of trip fuelWhich of the listed estimated masses is correct? Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg. Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg. Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg. Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.

20 - Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision4. There is natural tendency to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes 1,2,3 1,2,4 3,4 1,2

21 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist: SIDs should be entered but not STARs Both should be entered in the ATC plan where appropriate Neither SID nor STAR should be entered STARS should be entered but not SIDs

22 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass Plus the Operating Mass. Plus the Trip Fuel Mass. Less the Operating Mass. Less the Trip Fuel Mass.

23 - Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a prolonged level turn? Flying straight and level Turning in the opposite direction Turning into the original direction Climbing

24 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?

B C A D

25 - Visual Flight RulesAbove an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class 'G' in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km. A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km. A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km. A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.

26 - What does the abbreviation 'HX' mean? Sunrise to sunset. No specific working hours. Continuous day and night service. Sunset to sunrise.

27 - The Basic Empty Mass is 4960 kg, the Dry Operating Mass is 5220 kg and the Zero Fuel Mass is 6040 kg.If the take-off mass is 7630 kg the useful load is 1590 kg 2670 kg 820 kg 2410 kg

28 - An air mass is called stable when The temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height The pressure in a given area is constant The vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears The environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents

29 - What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message? Ask the station to change to frequency 121.5 MHZ. Immediately acknowledge the distress message. Request position of the station in distress. Request the nature of emergency in progress, and request further intentions.

30 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are: 1, 4, 5, 10 2, 3, 6, 9 1, 5, 8, 10 1, 4, 6, 9

31 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc444 4)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

32 - When completing Item 9 of the ATC flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered:

The most descriptive abbreviation 'XXXX' followed by an entry in Item 18 'NONE' 'ZZZZ' followed by an entry in Item 18

33 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip: Counter clockwise Clockwise From the upper side of the wing toward the underwing From the underwing toward the upper side of the wing

34 - What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m? 8 m (27') 15 m (50') 64 m (210') 32 m (105')

35 - How should an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency 132.0083 (8.33 KHz frequency spacing)? Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.0083 Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.010 Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR on 132.0083 Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR 132.010

36 - How can wing flutter be prevented? By increasing the aspect ratio of the wing By mounting the engines on the fuselage By locating mass in front of the torsion axis of the wing By installing the fuel tanks in the fuselage

37 - When should an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word 'Heavy' immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy? Never In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit In all calls

38 - A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and The landing distance will be unaffected. The landing distance required will be longer. The approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher. The approach path will be steeper.

39 - Under normal conditions (CS 2 5) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed: 4000 Ft 8000 ft 10000 ft 6000 Ft

40 - The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a: Return spring Bimetallic strip Second calibrated port Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.

41 - On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information: There is a risk of you underestimating your speed Estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well-trained pilot Judgement of height is extremely difficult There is a risk of you entering a spin

42 - What does 'Friction coefficient 45' in a runway report mean: Braking action good Braking action not measurable Braking action poor Braking action medium

43 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing: Can occur, but only at a low power setting Is possible at any setting Can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings Cannot occur

44 - If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources: The only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for the two tasks A person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail off The only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based mode for the two tasks The sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced

45 - In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by: Pushing The Rpm Lever Forwards. Pulling the RPM lever rearwards. Pulling the power levers rearwards. Pushing The Power Lever Forwards.

46 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be: 328 334 003 345

47 - Given:SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853. 1) radial 120°/35 NM.What is the aircraft position? 45° 90° 0° 60°

48 - When the term 'Overcast' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: Less than 50% 50% or more No clouds but poor ground visibility 100%

49 - During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles allow to: Hold IAS. Maintain V2 under 1.500 ft. Hold N1. Hold and maintain the Mach number.

50 - What does dewpoint mean? The temperature at which ice melts. The freezing level (danger of icing). The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation. The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.

51 - The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: Centre of pressure Centre of gravity Stagnation point Point of lowest pressure

52 - Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect? Bends Chokes Pain in the sinuses Hypoxia

53 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for: A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre. An indirect approach. A conventional approach. A precision approach.

54 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to: Two or more aircraft in the same direction from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less than 1.7NM Two or more aircraft different directions from the interrogator at the same altitude with a difference in slant range of less than 1.7NM Two or more aircraft different directions from the ground station at the same altitude with a difference in slant range of more than 1.7NM Two modes, each 1024 codes

55 - The passenger oxygen mask will supply: 100% Oxygen. A mixture of oxygen and freon gas. A mixture of cabin air and oxygen. A Mixture Of Compressed Air And Oxygen Or 100% Oxygen.

56 - Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?-1: noise.-2: conflict.-3: temperature.-4: an administrative problem.-5: hunger. The combination of correct statements is: 1,3,4 3,4,5 1,3,5 2,3,5

57 - The range of movement of a control surface is limited by: Primary stops at the surface. Secondary Stops At The Control Column. Primary Stops At The Control Column. Control Cable Tension.

58 - In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is Lower than 1. High (supersonic). Exactly 1. Small but still supersonic.

59 - The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of: Passengers In The Cabin. Seat rows in the cabin. Emergency exits in the cabin. Seats in the cabin.

60 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be: Track A, time 8 h 3 min Track D, time 8 h 20 min Track C, time 8 h15 min Track B, time 8 h 10 min[see Annex]

61 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. One year Five years after licence issue. Two years

62 - Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:1. bad night's sleep2. day flight Amsterdam - New York3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg4. night flight New York - Amsterdam 2 and 4 are correct 1,2,3 and 4 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 1,2 and 3 are correct

63 - The risk of spatial disorientation increases when: The pilot is buckled tightly to his/her seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense The pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions There is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs Information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored

64 - Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ?

NDB VOR/DME VOR TACAN

65 - Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. The critical angle of attack is reached. Shockstall occurs. Mach buffet occurs.

66 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must stop. May continue to taxi towards the take-off area. Is cleared for take-off. Must return to its point of departure.

67 - Among the systematic errors of the 'directional gyro', the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by... 7.5°/hour to the right. 15°/hour to the right. 7.5°/hour to the left. 10.5°/hour to the right.

68 - An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

69 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle? Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) + or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured

70 - Which of the following statements is correct concerning flight in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)? It is impossible to detect objects. It is difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects. It is unlikely that visual illusions occur. There is no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects.

71 - The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the:1. upper skin surface.2. lower skin surface.3. wing root fairing.4. spar or spars.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3, 2004. 2, 3. 3, 4 1, 2, 4.

72 - Regarding the operating system used for an on-board documentation (charts and company information): There are no certification requirements The certification requirements are detailed in EUROCAE standards The certification requirements are detailed in CS 25/2 The certification requirements are detailed in PART-CAT

73 - In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to: Oil Pressure. The resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces. Blade creep. Thermal Expansion.

74 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct? The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

75 - An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit? The same altitude as the elevation of the summit A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit

76 - If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC flight plan, you write: ZZZZ XXXX AAAA ////

77 - Refer to JAR Student Pilot Route Manual, Paris, Charles-de-Gaulle (Plate 20- 2): The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is: 83 NM 96 NM 73 NM 88 NM[see Annex]

78 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than: 13 000 ft 10 000 ft 11 000 ft 12 000 ft

79 - If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? 995 hPa 1000 hPa 1025 hPa 1005 hPa

80 - A radio signal loses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called: Attenuation Ducting Propagation Refraction

81 - Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant): None Drag decreases across the whole speed range At speeds greater than the minimum drag speed, drag increases Drag increases across the whole speed range

82 - The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to Activate A Radio Survival Beacon By Cutting Off The Red Coloured Top Free exits in case of evacuation via the sides. Settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety. Obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.

83 - If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: Increase and the rate of descent will increase. Increase and the rate of descent will decrease. Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. Decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

84 - At what degree of icing should ICAO's 'Change of course and/or altitude desirable' recommendation be followed? Light Moderate Extreme Severe

85 - The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:1. magnetic masses2. ferrous metal masses3. non ferrous metal masses4. electrical currentsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 4 1, 2, 4

86 - If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: Benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. Require less power for a given airspeed. Require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. Tend to over rotate during take-off.

87 - Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is: Obvious Sudden Insidious Intense

88 - At flight level and mach number constant, if OAT decreases, the CAS: Decreases. Increases. Decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case. Remains constant.

89 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with: Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer North

90 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 300? 200 hPa 700 hPa 300 hPa 500 hPa

91 - Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight ( 1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing ( 2) will: (1) not move (2) move forward (1) move aft, (2) move aft (1) move aft, (2) not move (1) move aft, (2) move forward

92 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: Flying above 3.000 ft above ground. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace. Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.

93 - When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides in the armed position is opened from the outside, the slide: Unfolds But Does Not Become Inflated. Unfolds and becomes inflated. Becomes inflated in its container thus preventing its unfolding. Is disarmed automatically.

94 - The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination. They Indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces Allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition Are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC Are important senses for flight training in IMC

95 - A three-phase electrical tachometer consists of: A three-phase generator, a synchronous motor and a magnetic tachometer. Three speed probes and a phonic wheel. A speed probe and a phonic wheel. Three associated dynamos.

96 - Electrical requirements for an alumel / chromel indicating system are 3 phase AC for sensor plus 28V DC for gauging Power for gauge lighting only 28V DC for sensor plus power for gauge lighting 3 phase AC for sensor plus 26V AC for gauge lighting

97 - What does the word 'contact' mean? Radar contact established Listen out on (frequency) Establish radio contact with ... That is correct

98 - Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller

99 - During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates: No apparent turn. An apparent turn to the south. No apparent turn only on southern latitudes. An apparent turn to the north.

100 - On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a resolution advisory (RA) is represented by: A white or cyan empty lozenge. A red full square. An amber solid circle. A white or cyan solid lozenge.

101 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance An increased landing distance and better go-around performance An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

102 - The pilot in command of an aircraft 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the 'pilot flying'. 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 3 - 4 - 5 3 - 5 2 - 3 - 5 1 - 4

103 - Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 900 kg- Alternate fuel: 700 kg- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kgThe actual take-off mass can never be higher than: 69 600 kg 70 400 kg 72 000 kg 74 000 kg

104 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. To conduct precision radar approach (PAR). To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima. To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.

105 - Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructions Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings

106 - Informal roles within a crew Are explicitly set out by the crew Will always impair the captain's influence Evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members Characterize inefficient crews

107 - EHAM 120600Z 02025KT 3000 RA BKN005 OVC015 11/10 Q1012=Which of the following is the correct decode for the Amsterdam METAR? Observation at 06:00 UTC, wind 020° at 25 kts, visibility 3000 m in rain, clouds: broken with base 500 ft AGL and 8 oktas with base 1500 ft AGL, temperature +11°C, dew point +10°C, QNH 1012 hPa. Period of validity between 06:00 UTC and 00:00 UTC Wind 020° at 25 kts, visibility 3000 m in rain, clouds: broken with base 500 ft AGL and 8 oktas with base 1500 ft AGL, temperature +11°C, dew point +10°C, QNH 1012 hPa. Period of validity between 06:00 UTC and 00:00 UTC

108 - As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird strike hazards by means of:1 - ATIS2 - NOTAMs3 - BIRDTAMs4 - Weather radar5 - The report by another crewThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4,5 1,3,4 1,2,5 2,5

109 - Uphill slope: Decreases the accelerate stop distance only Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance Increases the allowed take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance only

110 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition LayerWhen flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as: Altitude during climb Altitude during descent Either altitude or flight level during climb Flight level during descent

111 - The heart muscle is supplied with blood by: Ventricles The auricles The pulmonary veins The coronary arteries

112 - What does the abbreviation 'ATIS' mean? Airport terminal information service Automatic terminal information service Air traffic information service Automatic terminal information system

113 - The ideal cockpit can be termed as: Cohesive Communicative Synergistic Co-operative

114 - What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of: Spoilers Flaps Fuselage mounted speed-brakes Slats

115 - Before transmitting the pilot should...: Always write the message and read it during the transmission Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur

116 - The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is:

300/100 300/140 290/110 300/160

117 - If the pilot increases the reference pressure using the sub-scale setting knob, the altitude indicated by the altimeter: Decreases if QNH > 1013 hPa. Decreases if QNH < 1013 hPa. Increases. Decreases.

118 - Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

119 - Allowed traffic load is the difference between: Allowed take off mass and basic empty mass. Allowed take off mass and basic empty mass plus trip fuel. Operating mass and basic empty mass. Allowed take off mass and operating mass.

120 - When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 1 6) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as:

0155 0115 115M 1H55

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

120 questions on 120 minutes atpl