Test 120 Exam questions ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

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120 questions on 120 minutes atpl

1 - The critical Mach number can be increased by Sweepback of the wings. An increase in wing aspect ratio. A T-tail. Positive dihedral of the wings.

2 - What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart? 0.866 0.5 1.0 0.0

3 - Urgency is defined as: A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

4 - The touchdown areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of: Viscous hydroplaning Rubber steaming hydroplaning Rubber reversion hydroplaning Dynamic hydroplaning

5 - In the northern hemisphere, during a take-off run in a westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates: An apparent turn to the north. An apparent turn to the south. No apparent turn. An apparent turn to approximately the heading 255°.

6 - An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg.Certificated maximum masses are as follows:Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp:Taxi fuel 600 kg Trip fuel 17830 kgContingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is 21500 kg 21080 kg 20870 kg 21220 kg

7 - An inertial reference and navigation system is a "strapdown" system when: The gyroscopes and accelerometers are part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure. Gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference. Gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft. Only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, are part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure.

8 - Geodetic latitude and geocentric latitude coincide Only on the equator. At 45°N/S. At the Poles and on the equator. Only at the Poles.

9 - An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Left aileron: 2° u 34. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Left aileron: 2° u 34. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Left aileron: 2° u 34. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Left aileron: 2° up

10 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance An increased landing distance and better go-around performance An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

11 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY' it is requested: Not to interfere with the distress communication. To leave the frequency in use. To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic. To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.

12 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately: 50 FT/MIN 250 FT/MIN 100 FT/MIN 150 FT/MIN

13 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown? FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN 1620 pps

14 - OCAAn OCA is referenced to: The Aerodrome Reference Point The relevant Runway Threshold Mean Sea Level An Aerodrome Elevation

15 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is: Less then that required at an alternate airport. More than that required at an alternate airport. The same as that required at an alternate airport. 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport

16 - The air mass affecting position "S" is most likely to be

Maritime polar and unstable. Maritime polar and stable. Maritime tropical and stable. Continental tropical and unstable.

17 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. Six months or longer Three months or longer Two months or longer One year or longer

18 - The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: Barometric error. Position pressure error Hysteresis effect. Instrument error.

19 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and: Climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft Climb or descent 1 000 ft The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and: climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft climb or descent 1 000 ft climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft Climb or descend 500 ft

20 - In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG = VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR = 00000KT 9999 SCT030 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG = 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =

21 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction: Changing over Fastair 345 Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345 118.0 Fastair 345 Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345

22 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the: Frequency change between the emitted wave and reflected wave Frequency of the reflected wave Time between the transmission and reception of radio pulses 190 NM

23 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of: The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage Rate of climb to true airspeed True airspeed to rate of climb The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage

24 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc444 4)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

25 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be: 330° 210° 030° 150°

26 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is: 101596 kg 209064 kg 74064 kg 286781 kg

27 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate ? 2.0°C/1000 FT 3.0°C/1000 FT 3.5°C/1000 FT 1.5°C/1000 FT

28 - Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission: Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7 Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight check

29 - The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be: 266° 278° 270° 274°

30 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels: 285 and 420 275 and 400 280 and 390 280 and 400

31 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reactiontime of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt withinthe (iii) ......... (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available

32 - The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: 17 years 21 years 18 years 16 years

33 - The initial great circle track from A to B is 080° and the rhumb line track is 083°. What is the initial great circle track from B to A and in which hemisphere are the two positions located? 260° and in the Southern Hemisphere. 260° and in the Northern Hemisphere. 266° and in the Northern Hemisphere. 266° and in the Southern Hemisphere.

34 - The Maximum Taxi (Ramp) Mass is governed by: Tyre speed and temperature limitations. Structural considerations. Taxi distance to take-off point. Bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.

35 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system? It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information from VOR/DME stations.

36 - An aircraft departs from Schiphol airport (STF 1 h) (52.3° N 004.8° E) and flies to Santa Cruz (17.8° S 063.2° W) in Bolivia, South America via Miami (25.8° N 080.2° W) in Florida.The departure time (off blocks) is 07:45 ST at the 10th of November, taxi time before take off Schiphol is 25 min.The flight time to Miami over the Atlantic Ocean is 09:20.The total taxi time in Miami to and from the gate is 25 min. The time spent at the gate is 02:40.From Miami to Santa Cruz the airborne time is 06:30.Calculate the time and date of touch down in Santa Cruz in ST Bolivia if the difference between ST and UTC is 4 h. 21:05 10th Nov 07:05 11th Nov 22:05 10th Nov 09:05 11th Nov

37 - Where does polar continental air originate? Areas of arctic water. The region of the Baltic sea. The region of Greenland. Siberian landmass.

38 - Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which: There is subsonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane. Local supersonic flow first exists on any part of the aeroplane. The aeroplane has zero buffet margin. There is supersonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane.

39 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications.This is particularly true of the: Weather radar VOR DME Orbital plane and the Earth's axis

40 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to: A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. A barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

41 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as: Take-off decision speed Lift off speed Critical engine failure speed Take-off climb speed or speed at 35'

42 - The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds: A torque motor on the sensitive axis A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring 2 torque motors arranged horizontally A levelling erection torque motor

43 - When transmitting time, which time system shall be used? Local time (LT) M. and P.M. Local time (LT), 24-hour clock No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)

44 - Washout is: A reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to reduce the chances of retreating blade stall. The difference between the blade section pitch angle and the angle of attack at any point along the blade. A reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to delay the effects of compressibility. A reduction in the blade section pitch angle towards the tip to give a more even distribution of lift along the span of the blade.

45 - Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. 2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) Is Correct, 2) Is Incorrect. 1) Is Incorrect, 2) Is Correct. 1) Is Incorrect, 2) Is Incorrect.

46 - If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both generators: Must Be 120° Out Of Phase. Must be synchronised. Must be 240° out of phase. Is unimportant.

47 - Given:TAS = 135 kt, HDG (°T) = 278,W/V = 140/20ktCalculate the Track (°T) and GS? 279 - 152 kt 272 - 121 kt 283 - 150 kt 275 - 150 kt

48 - For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of: 1/15th 1/12th 1/10th 1/9th

49 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: While taxiing, but not when it is being towed Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable On the ground when the engines are running

50 - Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves? Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge

51 - In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: Passed Across An Expansion Turbine, Then Compressed And Passed Through A Heat Exchanger. Compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine. Compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally across a heat exchanger. Passed Across An Expansion Turbine, Then Directly To The Heat Exchanger.

52 - Which design features improve static lateral stability?1. Anhedral.2. Dihedral.3. Forward sweep.4. Sweepback.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 2, 4.

53 - Presbyopia is: Long sightedness linked with age High intraocular pressure Myopia Short sightedness

54 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

55 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4:Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.

Magnetic course 282°, distance 112 KM Magnetic course 092°, distance 82 NM Magnetic course 091°, distance 54 NM Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM

56 - The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by Convection Subsidence A decrease in pressure A decrease in temperature

57 - Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they: Produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller. Have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller. Have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller. Produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.

58 - A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan

59 - Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case? At lower altitudes. Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels. More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft. During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 2 000 FT

60 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT

61 - The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the Centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient Effect of coriolis is added to friction Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient Coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force

62 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is: 79000 kg 65200 kg. 93000 kg 78000 kg

63 - An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? 3rd freedom 1st freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom

64 - In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is 967 hPa. 942 hPa. 948 hPa. 961 hPa.

65 - How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight: VOLMET SIGMET AFIS ATIS

66 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: An emergency Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight Transponder malfunction Radio communication failure

67 - What type of cloud can produce hail showers? CS CB AC NS

68 - Which of the following are included in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?1. Freedom from pain and danger2. Expressions of capacities and talents3. Self-esteem needs4. Self-fulfilment needs5. Physiological needs 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2 and 4 only All except 2 All the above

69 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about: 5° 3% 8% 3°

70 - For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the Environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate Environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate Dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than environmental lapse rate Environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate

71 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the: Temperature of the hydraulic fluid. Pressure of the hydraulic fluid. Temperature of the brakes. Pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

72 - VMO: Is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity Should be chosen in between VC and VD Should not be less than VD Should not be greater than VC

73 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for: A given flight from departure to destination Aircraft flying in MNPS airspace A period of 24 hours A period of 12 hours

74 - Given:True Heading = 090° TAS = 200 ktW/V = 220° / 30 kt.Calculate the GS? Needed by the Sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6° Agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes Between sunset and when the centre of the Sun is 12° below the true horizon Between sunset and when the centre of the Sun is 6° below the true horizon

75 - Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of 50 NM or more 75 NM or more 100 NM or more 60 NM or more

76 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than: 150 m 100 m 75 m 50 m

77 - Hard iron magnetism in aircraft may be caused by: All answers are correct. A strike of lightning. Magnetic qualities of the cargo or baggage. Steel components, mainly in engines and undercarriage.

78 - When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is Lower than before but still greater than 1. Equal to 1. Less than 1. Higher than before.

79 - Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ? Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature. Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade. Is independent of altitude. Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

80 - On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the 'pitch up' phenomenon: Is caused by wingtip stall Is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings Is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices Never occurs, since a swept wing is a 'remedy' to pitch up

81 - At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB? From the ground up to about FL 200. From the ground up to about FL 100. From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450. From the base of the clouds up to about FL 200.

82 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load. The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.

83 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of: 90 NM 113 NM 123 NM The distance along a track between two waypoints

84 - On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that The polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet Above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south Below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south The polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet

85 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a: Low mass and low airspeed High mass and high airspeed Low mass and high airspeed High mass and low airspeed

86 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve Is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum. Is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. Is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. Is the maximum drag speed.

87 - What is the convergence at 50°00'N between the meridians 105°00'W and 145°00'W on the Earth? 32,1° 30,6° 40,0° 50,0°

88 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar? 3. 5. 4. 2.

89 - If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase: UNABLE NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION REGRET CANNOT FOLLOW INSTRUCTION CANCEL INSTRUCTION

90 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system? The distance between the actual position and the great circle track between two active waypoints. The distance between the air position and the planned track The distance between the air position and the great circle track between two active waypoints. The transmitter moves toward the receiver

91 - In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a: Transformer rectifier unit. Rotary converter. 3 phase current transformer unit. Static Inverter.

92 - At a given altitude, the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: Mach number of the aircraft. Aircraft attitude. Time passed at this altitude. Static temperature.

93 - How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood? White blood cells. Plasma. Blood fat. Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.

94 - On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information: There is a risk of you underestimating your speed Estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well-trained pilot Judgement of height is extremely difficult There is a risk of you entering a spin

95 - A servo tab moves: According To The Airflow That Surrounds It. In The Same Direction Of The Control Surface To Which It's Hinged. Parallel To The Control Surface To Which It Is Hinged. Opposite of the control surface to which it is hinged.

96 - The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: 45 min. 60 min. 30 min. Variable with wind velocity.

97 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s 2) 27%. 1.286%. 7.86%. 12.86%.

98 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth? Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day) Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day) 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix

99 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct? Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10° The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass

100 - How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off: Ready for take-off Ready for departure or ready Ready to go Ready to line-up

101 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME? The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band. The DME ground station is always co-located with a VOR station. The indicated distance is the ground distance measured from the aircraft's projected position on the ground to the DME ground installation. Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an unambiguous fix.

102 - The induced angle of attack is the result of: A large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow Downwash due to tip vortices Change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack Downwash due to flow separation

103 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order: Green, amber/yellow, red, magenta Amber/yellow, magenta, black Black, amber/yellow, magenta, red Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions

104 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on: An altimeter set to the QFE. A radio altimeter. An altimeter set to 1013 hPa. An altimeter set to the QNH.

105 - During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates: An apparent turn to the north. A constant heading. An apparent turn to the south. A heading fluctuating about 090°.

106 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI)The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be:

080° 096° 106° 066°

107 - Given:Position 'A' N60 W020, Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020.What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C? 60 NM and 30 NM 52 NM and 60 NM 60 NM and 52 NM 30 NM and 60 NM

108 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was: 186 NM 296 NM 158 NM The pulse recurrence rates are varied

109 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: Is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state Shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility And the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible Shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

110 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: Strength of the headwind. Aircraft's weight. Amount of the lift off speed. Depth of the standing water on the runway.

111 - You start from P (70°00'N 015°00'E) and fly westward along the parallel of latitude for 2 hours at ground speed 220 kts. What is your position after two hours flight? 006°26'W 021°26'W 007°40'E 006°44'W

112 - What does the word 'cancel' mean? A change has been made to your last clearance Wait and I will call you Annul the previously transmitted clearance Consider that transmission as not sent

113 - When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with: 'Message to all aircraft on this frequency' 'General broadcast' 'Please listen' 'All stations'

114 - The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in: Series With The Armature. Parallel with the armature. Parallel with the shunt field coil. Series with the shunt field coil.

115 - Contour heights are: True heights AGL. Indicated heights above 1013,25 mb. True heights AMSL. Do not indicate heights at all.

116 - What does the word 'check' mean? Confirm your last transmission Read back my last instruction Examine a system or procedure I understand your message

117 - In a steady level, co-ordinated turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be: N greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight N smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight N smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight N greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight

118 - Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory services Providing flight Information Service Providing alerting services Achieving separation between controlled flights

119 - CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is: Not intended to change the individual's attitude at all Intended solely to alter an individual's personality Intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management Is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes

120 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ? NAV/RAD charts ATCC AIP NOTAM

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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

120 questions on 120 minutes atpl