Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
EN angle-down

Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject Change Questions
1 - In the ATC flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by:
question fp43.webp
2 - Given: True HDG = 002°, TAS = 130 kt, Track (T) = 353°, GS = 132 kt. Calculate the W/V?
3 - What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?
4 - During the approach, the radio altimeter indicates 950 ft. This is:
5 - A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still-air distance?
6 - Mode error is associated with:
7 - Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:
8 - Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle takes cracking of the structure into account. 2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours.
9 - What is a 'barrette'?
10 - The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are: 1- MLS, 2- GPS, 3- VOR, 4- IRS. The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
11 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
12 - For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be:
13 - What does the abbreviation 'AFIS' mean?
14 - When the term 'Broken' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
15 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
16 - Haemoglobin has an affinity for carbon monoxide of _______ times over oxygen
17 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
18 - Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060° Magnetic variation: 8°W Drift angle: 4° right What is the true track?
19 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
20 - When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
21 - The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is:
22 - An aircraft is flying at FL180 and the outside air temperature is -30°C. If the CAS is 150 kt, what is the TAS?
23 - A "Bourdon tube" is used in:
24 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
25 - The function of the rudder limiter system is:
26 - Communications Failure - Flight Procedures. You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: 'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
27 - Which load factor determines VA?
28 - Regardless of your position, time figures are transmitted with reference to:
29 - Refer to figure: Which figure in the appendix represents the geographic latitude of position P, which is situated above the surface of the ellipsoid?
question gnav23.webp
30 - An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
31 - Given: value for the flattening of the Earth is 1/298. Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the poles?
32 - What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism?
33 - Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
34 - An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 m. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
35 - Approach Procedures - Circling. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
36 - The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Which of these statements about the stick force stability is correct?
37 - When fog is reported, the visibility is below
38 - An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to:
39 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
40 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
41 - What does the phrase 'break break' mean?
42 - Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)? 1. Healthy living 2. Use of amphetamines 3. Reducing the intensity of the light 4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
43 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
44 - I. Stick force per g is independent of altitude. II. Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves forward.
45 - In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:
46 - The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport aeroplane is within the following range:
47 - In relation to an aircraft, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aircraft structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aircraft configuration. Its value is
48 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4. Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E?
question fp14.webp
49 - Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the:
50 - What does the word 'correct' mean?
51 - Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
52 - Approximately how long will a blood alcohol level of 60 mg / 100 ml take to return to normal?
53 - During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that:
54 - Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must:
55 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
56 - On many small piston-engine aeroplanes fitted with constant-speed propellers, blade pitch is changed:
57 - What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass over central Europe in the daytime during summer?
58 - An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50.000 kg; Trip fuel= 4.300 kg; Contingency fuel= 215 kg; Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2.100 kg Taxi= 500 kg; Block fuel= 7.115 kg; Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9.000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:
59 - As a cause of accidents, the human factor:
60 - Coefficient A is correct for by:
61 - Given: Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M). Wind direction 100°(M). Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed?
62 - The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
63 - See Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1. Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions. Given: OAT: 3°C; Pressure altitude: 6000 ft; Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
question fp30.webp
64 - Regarding fire detection, Ion detectors are used to detect:
65 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
66 - Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause:
67 - For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are:
68 - When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in:
69 - The following unit of measurement: kg m/s^2 is expressed in the SI-system as:
70 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E?
question fp54.webp
71 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
72 - The function of the generator breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
73 - In the event of a conflict, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance System) presents warnings to the crew such as:
74 - Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption. Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
question 033-508.webp
75 - What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
76 - In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check the:
77 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
78 - What is the correct way of expressing visibility?
79 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
80 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
81 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
82 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
83 - An aircraft's compass must be swung:
84 - The average pulse of a healthy adult at rest is about:
85 - A load placed forward of the datum
86 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
87 - When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC should use the following phrase:
88 - The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
89 - Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles?
question gnav44.webp
90 - Given: Runway direction 083°(M) Surface W/V 035/35 KT. Calculate the effective headwind component?
91 - The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be: (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight)
92 - The altitude alerting system:
93 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 kt FL 330 cruise 0.78 Mach ISA +20 °C estimated landing weight 55000 kg. Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
question 433c.webp
94 - Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures
95 - The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
96 - You intend to operate a commercial air transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
97 - Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?
98 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
99 - Cumulus clouds are an indication for
100 - The principle of the Schuler pendulum is used in the design of a:
101 - If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (CG) on the aircraft?
102 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as:
103 - Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
104 - When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is:
105 - The unit used to measure the capacitance of a capacitor is the:
106 - With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is about:
107 - An Agonic line is a line that connects:
108 - When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
109 - A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the:
110 - When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will
111 - What does the abbreviation 'RVR' mean?
112 - An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:
113 - Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible to trim these control surfaces?
114 - During take-off the third segment begins:
115 - The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
116 - The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg The traffic load available for this flight is:
117 - Given: TAS = 440 kt, HDG (T) = 349° W/V = 040/40kt. Calculate the drift and GS?
118 - At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the:
119 - What does the abbreviation 'INS' mean?
120 - Decision-making results in:
PRO
★★★★★ 4,8/5
Quizvds PRO
All Questions Included
Start Now
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free
Download mobile apps
Google Play App Store
© 2026 EGWeb di Guatta Mattia - VAT: 04768540983