Quiz atpl 120 questions on 120 minutes


1 - The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is:
2 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
3 - The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine powerplant is:
4 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
5 - When suffering from Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately at:
6 - How can the process of learning be facilitated?
7 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'?
8 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
9 - A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by
10 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
11 - An autopilot system:
12 - In the Air Almanac the highest time difference listed for difference between UTC and Standard time is maximum:
13 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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14 - Two places on the parallel of 47°S lie 757,8 km apart. Calculate the difference in longitude.
15 - The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:
16 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000' clear of obstacles.
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17 - A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
18 - Given:Pt: total pressure Ps: static pressurePd: dynamic pressure The altimeter is fed by:
19 - The position of a Flight Director command bars:
20 - The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
21 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
22 - Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
23 - What does the term 'air-ground communication' mean?
24 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a 'change of speed' is defined as:
25 - Thunderstorms are often preceded by:
26 - The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
27 - Ergonomics are associated with:
28 - A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
29 - Autokinetic illusion is:
30 - Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
31 - Which of the following statements is correct?
32 - What does the term 'Expected Approach Time' mean:
33 - In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi.An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi.The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
34 - VMO:
35 - Considering a stabilised platform inertial system: 1) The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on the same platform. 2) The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on two separated platforms. 3) The principle of operation requires at least 2 rate gyros. 4) The principle of operation requires at least 2 accelerometers.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
36 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
37 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
38 - What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
39 - In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs?
40 - The chemical oxygen generator is a system 1. which is inexpensive 2. requiring no external input 3. which is lightweight 4. requiring no maintenance 5. with adjustable flow rate 6. which is unsaf The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
41 - In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:
42 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Give the frequency of ZURICH VOLMET.
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43 - The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch-down) actuated by:
44 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
45 - In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non-traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
46 - A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:
47 - The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
48 - What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?
49 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 hTAS: 115 ktGround Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
50 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Endurance: 2 hTAS: 120 ktGround Speed Out: 135 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
51 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
52 - When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will
53 - Some aircraft use a fly-by-wire system to move the primary flight controls. This system is based on:
54 - VX is:
55 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'?
56 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
57 - From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively:
58 - What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence:
59 - Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
60 - When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ?
61 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
62 - What is meant by metabolism ?
63 - What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:
64 - During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
65 - The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details:
66 - A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor:
67 - The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
68 - The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
69 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
70 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:
71 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
72 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
73 - On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart:
74 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
75 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
76 - The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:
77 - Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?1. Stress Factors (stressors)2. Errors3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning4. Human conflict5. Colour blindness
78 - An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:
79 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
80 - A "slat" is:
81 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'.CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
82 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
83 - What is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact in an area control centre?
84 - Which FL corresponds with the 850 hPa pressure level ?
85 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 19 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 Given: brake release mass 57500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C head wind component 16 KT initial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NGM) for the climb
86 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
87 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
88 - A layer in which the temperature increases with height is
89 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
90 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
91 - The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:
92 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
93 - The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is:
94 - The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
95 - An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain
96 - The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
97 - The acquisition of skill comprises three stages (Anderson model):
98 - The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft position along the flight plan are:1- MLS2- GPS3- VOR4- IRSThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
99 - Aircraft told to contact Stephenville Radar on 132.010. Response if unable to comply:
100 - Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potentia The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
101 - While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system:
102 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
103 - The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
104 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
105 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
106 - In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is
107 - During an erect spin recovery:
108 - The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N / g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady level flight is:
109 - With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
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110 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
111 - Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and understood ?
112 - . The moment for an item is
113 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
114 - If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
115 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC
116 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:
117 - One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used
118 - Which measure(s) will help to compensate for hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical activities.
119 - . Allowed traffic load is the difference between:
120 - Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ATC flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: 'Total estimated time' is the time elapsed from:
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