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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - PARIS CDG Plate 20-3: Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NM Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6.
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2 - The QNH is by definition the value of the:
3 - When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated 1. its resistance decreases. 2. its resistance increases. 3. the leakage current increases. 4. the leakage current decreases The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
4 - The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
5 - Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50:
6 - In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
7 - The speed V2 is:
8 - Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
9 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
10 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
11 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in
12 - What is meant by metabolism ?
13 - An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ?
14 - The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
15 - What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in July ?
16 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
17 - Aircraft told to contact Stephenville Radar on 132.010. Response if unable to comply:
18 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
19 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
20 - When asked by ATC "ARE YOU ABLE TO MAINTAIN FL80?' the correct reply contains the word:
21 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
22 - What does QDR mean?
23 - The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is:
24 - When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be:
25 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
26 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)determine the distance.
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27 - What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
28 - Does the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?
29 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
30 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
31 - What shall the pilot's read back be for 'Climb to FL 280':
32 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
33 - With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs Basic arm: 88.5 InchesOne pilot: 160 lbsFront seat passenger: 200 lbs Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbsBaggage in zone 4: 50 lbs Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
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34 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
35 - What can be said concerning the following two statements?1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia.2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error.
36 - What does the instruction 'Go around' mean?
37 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
38 - Mode error is associated with:
39 - What is the average track (°M) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931. 5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856. 5)?
40 - An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:
41 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
42 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
43 - During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on:
44 - RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:'X-BC squawk ident'. What does this mean:
45 - Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:
46 - Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:
47 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
48 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique?1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
49 - Refer to CAP 696 Fig. 4.11:At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
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50 - What is the meaning of the expression 'FEW'?
51 - A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:
52 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
53 - Given:Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Dynamic pressure is:
54 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
55 - In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate - the air mass is described as being:
56 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
57 - Cabin altitude means the:
58 - In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require
59 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
60 - Uphill slope:
61 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
62 - From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively:
63 - The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation but excluding
64 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
65 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
66 - Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
67 - VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
68 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
69 - Given:The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kgTotal fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and 29 kg of unusable fuel The traffic load is 770 kgWhat is the Zero Fuel Mass?
70 - Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
71 - A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines, the final reserve should be:
72 - Given:CAS 120 kt,FL 80,OAT +20°C.What is the TAS?
73 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
74 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
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75 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
76 - What is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:
77 - The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:
78 - A temperature sensor has a recovery factor of 0,95. The temperature measured is equal to:
79 - The induced angle of attack is the result of:
80 - The International Nautical Mile defined by ICAO is equivalent to:
81 - Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct?
82 - A three-phase electrical tachometer consists of:
83 - The position of a Flight Director command bars:
84 - For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
85 - Machmeter readings are subject to:
86 - The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is:
87 - Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?
88 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)determine the magnetic course.
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89 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
90 - An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 ktMean wind component 'out' +55 kt Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MINThe distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
91 - Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an airstream (angle of attack and TAS are constant):
92 - Cognitive and physical rehearsal of actions during training:
93 - Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
94 - An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5000 lbs?
95 - What does the instruction 'Fastair 345 recycle 1240' mean?
96 - From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at:
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97 - With reference to the SHELL Model, S represents:
98 - When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated?
99 - What weather is prevalent in easterly waves?
100 - Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
101 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
102 - Traffic load is the difference between:
103 - The alternators, when connected, are usually connected:
104 - The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be aspilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
105 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Endurance: 5 hTrue Track:170 W/V: 140/25TAS: 125 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
106 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
107 - Given:Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Endurance: 2 hTAS: 120 ktGround Speed Out: 135 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 ktWhat is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
108 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
109 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
110 - When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is:
111 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
112 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
113 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
114 - Two identical aircraft A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 KT and that of B is 200 KT:
115 - How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75 departure aerodrome elevation 1500'QNH = 1023 hPatemperature = ISA1 hPa = 30'
116 - The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
117 - 'Integrated range' curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is
118 - Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of following answers is correct?
119 - What is meant by presbycusis?
120 - What counter-measure can be used against barotrauma of the middle ear?
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