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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Using the attached historical CAA MARS EUR WINDS/TEMPS chart for FL300, valid 12/1800Z (data time 0000Z on 12 November 1997), which listed wind direction/speed (degrees true/kt) is closest to the plotted wind at 60°N 015°W?
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2 - Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN?
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3 - Which altimeter subscale setting is used to indicate barometric altitude above mean sea level?
4 - A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight:
5 - An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
6 - Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes 'NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT'. In this case 'NUMBER' means:
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7 - On a transport whose low-speed outboard ailerons are locked out in the high-speed configuration, during which phase are they normally inhibited?
8 - An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:
9 - When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will
10 - Smoke entering the flight deck threatens the operating pilots’ breathing and vision. Which listed action provides immediate personal protection before system troubleshooting, in accordance with the aircraft’s smoke procedures?
11 - What does the abbreviation 'AIS' mean?
12 - Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
13 - Given: TAS = 465 kt, HDG (T) = 124°,W/V = 170/80kt. Calculate the drift and GS?
14 - In the conventional still-air aerodynamic model, with constant propulsion efficiency or specific fuel consumption and with neither optimum restricted by speed limits, the speed for maximum endurance:
15 - An aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls:
16 - The vertical command bar of a flight director:
17 - Complete this statement for a CS-25 dry-runway accelerate-stop assessment: the first action to reject the take-off is taken at (i) ___; the calculated stopping distance includes an additional distance equivalent to (ii) ___ at that speed; and the required distance must not exceed the (iii) ___.
18 - According to PART-FCL, class ratings shall be established for single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
19 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
20 - If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward and to the right, the left aileron will move:
21 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
22 - Use the attached SEP1 training Figure 2.5 under its associated conditions: initial fuel load 444 lb (74 US gal) and mass 3663 lb before engine start, sea-level departure and ISA conditions. At pressure altitude 7500 ft, full throttle, 2300 rpm and mixture 20 degrees C lean of peak EGT, what approximate endurance does the graph give, including its stated climb, taxi/runup and 45-minute reserve allowances?
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23 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
24 - In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
25 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
26 - An unsaturated air parcel is heated at constant pressure without adding or removing water vapour. How do its relative humidity and dew point change?
27 - Which statements about the physiological stress response are correct? 1. Adrenaline can increase heart rate and blood pressure as part of the response to a threat. 2. Cortisol released by the adrenal glands through the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal response helps mobilise energy resources. 3. Prolonged activation of the stress system can have adverse effects on health and performance.
28 - If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (CG) on the aircraft?
29 - Which phrase is correct when you are ready to depart?
30 - What is the approximate selected magnetic course shown by the course arrow?
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31 - AIP. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
32 - The maximum load per running metre of an aircraft is 350 kg / m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor?
33 - When descending at a constant Mach number:
34 - Apart from cumulonimbus, which are included separately, and vertical visibility when the sky is obscured, which cloud layers are included in an ATIS broadcast containing departure and arrival information?
35 - A performance class A jet aeroplane uses the EU basic fuel scheme without contingency-fuel variations. Trip fuel is 5350 kg and destination alternate fuel, including the complete missed approach and flight to the alternate, is 4380 kg. The fuel flow at the applicable 1500-ft holding conditions in standard atmosphere is 6000 kg/h for both contingency and final-reserve calculations. No further additional, extra or discretionary fuel is required. What is the minimum usable fuel required at take-off?
36 - When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
37 - In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
38 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is:
39 - On the attached historical Heathrow training plate 10-2 dated 9 December 1994, what are the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) for the BIG2A arrival?
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40 - Given: True Heading = 180° TAS = 500 kt, W/V 225° / 100 kt Calculate the GS?
41 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
42 - The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 2200 l. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is:
43 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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44 - Abbreviations. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
45 - When a typical shallow stratus cloud in mid-latitudes contains only liquid water droplets and produces precipitation, which form is most characteristic?
46 - Under SERA.5005(d)(2), what is the highest flight level at which a VFR flight may operate without invoking an exception to the restriction on VFR flights above FL 195? Other applicable airspace and clearance requirements still apply.
47 - The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
48 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
49 - A jet transport has the following structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg-Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg. The aeroplane's fuel is loaded in accordance with the following requirements:-Taxi fuel: 400 kg. -Trip fuel: 8400 kg. -Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg. -Alternate fuel: 1100 kg. If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.
50 - Refer to the original training figure. At longitude 006°02'E, the initial true track is 074°. Use an ideal north-polar grid whose grid north is parallel to the Greenwich meridian; at this position true north is 006°02' west of grid north. What is the initial grid track, to the nearest degree?
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51 - Even at normal cabin altitudes (that is, around 8000 ft) you can get severe abdominal pain and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks. The correct counter-measure is:
52 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
53 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
54 - Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:
55 - Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
56 - Under CS25.335(c), for a large transport aeroplane with a positive manoeuvring limit load factor of 2.5, which relation applies to the design manoeuvring speed VA and the flaps-retracted stall speed VS1? (Speeds are expressed in EAS; SQRT means square root.)
57 - Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)
58 - Under ARA.FCL.215, when the competent authority initially issues a class or type rating, how is the end of its validity period recorded?
59 - When an 'open circuit' occurs in an electrical supply system, the:
60 - An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is
61 - What is the purpose of supplemental oxygen after loss of cabin pressurisation?
62 - A common advantage of a well-designed flat-plate slotted-array antenna for an airborne weather radar is:
63 - On a high by-pass ratio (fan) engine, due to the distribution of the thrust, it is normal for reverse thrust to be achieved by reversing:
64 - An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing almost full right deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
65 - During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.
66 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
67 - In order to avoid CB a pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees. The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is:
68 - At fixed IAS in the ISA troposphere, neglecting instrument, position and compressibility errors, the difference TAS − IAS will:
69 - The manoeuvring speed VA expressed in indicated airspeed, of a transport aeroplane:
70 - What shall the pilot's readback be for 'climb to 2500 feet':
71 - Anxiety or fear may cause an excessive rate and depth of breathing with abnormal loss of carbon dioxide. What is this response called?
72 - Which of the following are typical electrical fault conditions addressed by aircraft AC generation and distribution protection? 1) Overvoltage. 2) Undervoltage. 3) Overcurrent. 4) Overfrequency. 5) Underfrequency. 6) Mechanical vibration of the generator, treated as an electrical output-voltage or frequency fault. Select the combination containing the electrical conditions.
73 - Under current CAT equipment criteria and applicable EU halon restrictions, how should a handheld aircraft fire-extinguishing agent be selected?
74 - Refer to CAP 696 Fig. 4.11:At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
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75 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
76 - The still-air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
77 - When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as:
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78 - Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a Contracting State and has to stay in that Contracting State until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the Contracting State where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
79 - For a CAT aeroplane with an MOPSC of 200, what is the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required in the passenger compartments, apart from those required for other compartments?
80 - A class B fire is a fire of:
81 - A scheduled IFR operator plans a flight within the EUROCONTROL Network Manager area from Paris-Orly to Angouleme. Before filing, the planned destination is changed to Limoges because Angouleme is closed. Can the operator use the Network Manager repetitive flight plan (RPL) service for this flight under the current arrangements?
82 - Landing gear torque links are used to:
83 - The stability in a layer increases by advection of
84 - In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are
85 - What is a typical advantage of an adjustable-stabiliser pitch-trim system compared with a small elevator trim tab?
86 - For a radio-equipped aircraft, the identification entered in Item 7 of the ATS flight plan must:
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87 - At unchanged mass and configuration, how can indicated stall speed vary with altitude, if compressibility becomes significant at high altitude?
88 - Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
89 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
90 - Using the attached sunrise table for 2000 and the nearest tabulated latitude, estimate the UTC of sunrise on 6 December at Winnipeg, Canada, 49 degrees 50'N 097 degrees 30'W.
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91 - For a conventional, stand-alone INS during ground alignment, which statement about an incorrectly entered starting position is correct?
92 - The function of the stick pusher is:
93 - At flight level and mach number constant, if OAT decreases, the CAS:
94 - What is a practical advantage of the NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' receiver technique?
95 - Which statement correctly describes the information carried by the peripheral nervous system?
96 - Given: Position A 45°N,?°E Position B 45°N, 45°15'E Distance A-B = 280 NMB is to the East of A. Required: longitude of position A?
97 - For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:
98 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
99 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
100 - Aircraft flying on reciprocal tracks may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
101 - Avoidance of collisions. The highest priority for landing has:
102 - When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be:
103 - Under the conventional PANS-ATM Mach-number technique based on time, with the required common-point and same-track conditions satisfied, what minimum longitudinal separation applies when the two aircraft maintain the same true Mach number?
104 - Runway threshold lights shall be:
105 - The drift down requirements are based on:
106 - Using the attached historical CAA MARS EUR WINDS/TEMPS chart for FL300, valid 07/1800Z (data time 0000Z on 7 March 1997), which listed temperature is closest to the approximate route-mean temperature on a true-north course along 040°E from 40°N to 50°N?
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107 - Under the RNAV 1 navigation specification, the required lateral total system error must remain within:
108 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
109 - Control surface flutter can be avoided by: 1. a high torsional stiffness of the structure. 2. a low torsional stiffness of the structure. 3. locating a balancing mass in front of the control hinge. 4. locating a balancing mass behind the control hinge. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
110 - For fail safe designed structural components: 1. there is more than one load carrying component. 2. one load carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough. 3. the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
111 - Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic leak?
112 - In which frequency bands are VOLMET voice broadcasts for aircraft in flight transmitted?
113 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
114 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
115 - What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received:
116 - According to FAA guidance, a diluter-demand oxygen system supplying 100% oxygen without positive-pressure breathing typically has an upper operating altitude of approximately:
117 - The message addressed to an Area Control Centre 'request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather' is:
118 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
119 - The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
120 - Knowing that: Dry operating mass: 110000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14000 kg distributed as shown in the annex. Fuel: 42000 kg (Fuel shift -20). Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) at take-off is located at:
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