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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
2 - When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
3 - Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper?
4 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
5 - What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
6 - The high lift device shown in the figure is a:
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7 - A CG location beyond the aft limit leads to:
8 - The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power 1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity 2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air 3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving 4 - is independent of the outside air temperature. The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
9 - Anxiety and fear can cause
10 - You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is?
11 - Shock induced separation results in
12 - In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by:
13 - A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still-air distance?
14 - A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by
15 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
16 - What does the term 'clearance limit' mean?
17 - The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye:
18 - How many feet are equivalent to 9,5 km?
19 - Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by
20 - What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height?
21 - AIP: Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
22 - How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood?
23 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
24 - Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message?
25 - Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate, restlessness/nervousness, insomnia, anxiety and intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is considered to be in excess of:
26 - On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:
27 - Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:
28 - In an ATC flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of:
29 - When shall the phrase 'Take-off' be used by a pilot:
30 - The drift down requirements are based on:
31 - Conversion of fuel volume to mass
32 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
33 - The risk of spatial disorientation increases when:
34 - Given: TAS = 90 kt, HDG (T) = 355°, W/V = 120/20kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
35 - What does the term 'broadcast' mean?
36 - Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
37 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
38 - The convergence of meridians:
39 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
40 - Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?
41 - Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
42 - Standard time is:
43 - VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
44 - The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that 1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used 2 - in case of accidental drop of the 'continuous flow' passenger masks, no crew action is required 3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly 4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non-freezing or graphite grease The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
45 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
46 - Which measure(s) will help to compensate for hypoxia? 1. Descend below 10 000 FT. 2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. 3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. 4. Reduce physical activities.
47 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
48 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
49 - The time difference in Local Mean time between sunset at position A (50°N 120°E) and B (50°S, 120°E) on the 21st of November is:
50 - What shall the pilot's readback be for 'climb to 2500 feet':
51 - A load placed aft of the datum:
52 - A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
53 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'?
54 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Endurance: 5 h True Track: 170 W/V: 140/25 TAS: 125 kt. What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
55 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.
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56 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
57 - Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an airstream (angle of attack and TAS are constant):
58 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
59 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
60 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
61 - Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions?
62 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
63 - According to EASA CS the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a MINOR FAILURE should be in the order of:
64 - An aircraft, following a 215° true track at variation 3°W, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be:
65 - The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is called
66 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
67 - An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 m. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
68 - What does the phrase 'Roger' mean:
69 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
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70 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
71 - The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when:
72 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have NAT HLA operational approval has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
73 - Daylight Saving Time (Summer Time):
74 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
75 - Isogonals are lines of equal:
76 - Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg. Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg. The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
77 - What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:
78 - An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
79 - Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration)?
80 - CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction of time of useful consciousness 2. hypoxia at a lower altitude than normal
81 - Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?
82 - An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same NDB is 270°. Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
83 - The message addressed to an Area Control Centre 'request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather' is:
84 - ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot:
85 - When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
86 - When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
87 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
88 - One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used
89 - Given: TAS = 198 kt, HDG (°T) = 180, W/V = 359/25. Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
90 - In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low level wind shear?
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91 - At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the aircraft: 1- Dry operating mass 2- Operating mass. Which statement is correct:
92 - The effect of the wing downwash on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is:
93 - When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than:
94 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
95 - Magnetic compass errors are:
96 - In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
97 - To reduce the risk of tyre burst due to overheating, for example after heavy braking during a rejected take-off, aircraft wheels may be fitted with:
98 - How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind / airflow V?
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99 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
100 - See Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5. Given: FL 75, Lean mixture, Full throttle, 2300 RPM. Take-off fuel: 444 lbs, Take-off from MSL. Find: Endurance in hours and minutes.
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101 - The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5000 N/m². It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side. Its maximum gross mass must not exceed: (assume g = 10 m/s²)
102 - Differential aileron deflection:
103 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
104 - Relative humidity
105 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
106 - The datum used for balance calculations is:
107 - If you are requested to 'Report flight conditions', what does that mean?
108 - The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
109 - An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received):
110 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
111 - When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term 'Visual approach'?
112 - VNO is the maximum speed:
113 - The yaw damper system sends a motion order to the rudder if the yawing rate of the aircraft:
114 - The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:
115 - A headwind will:
116 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 390?
117 - Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
118 - On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt. FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt. FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt. FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0. The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
119 - In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
120 - Loads must be adequately secured in order to: