Test 120 exam questions PPL(A) - Private Pilot License

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1 - What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "yes"? Roger Yes Affirm Affirmative

2 - Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft? All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft Flaps, slats, speedbrakes Elevator, rudder, aileron Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls

3 - Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated? When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand

4 - Stability around which axis is mainly influenced by the center of gravity's longitudinal position? Vertical axis Longitudinal axis Gravity axis Lateral axis

5 - From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure? 2000 feet 7000 feet 10000 feet 12000 feet

6 - What wind conditions can be expected in areas showing large distances between isobars? Formation of local wind systems with strong prevailing westerly winds Strong prevailing easterly winds with rapid backing Strong prevailing westerly winds with rapid veering Variable winds, formation of local wind systems

7 - The term "center of gravity" is defined as... The heaviest point on an aeroplane. Half the distance between the neutral point and the datum line. Another designation for the neutral point The point at which the total mass of the aeroplane is considered to act.

8 - In case of a stall it is important to... Increase the bank angle and reduce the speed Increase the angle of attack and increase the speed. Decrease the angle of attack and increase the speed Increase the angle of attack and reduce the speed.

9 - What is the correct way of acknowledging "You are now entering airspace Delta"? Entering Roger Wilco Airspace Delta

10 - How is the balance of forces affected during a turn? Lift force must be increased to compensate for the sum of centrifugal and gravitational force The net force results from superposition of gravity and centripetal forces The horizontal component of the lift force during a turn is the centrifugal force A lower lift force compensates for a lower net force as compared to level flight

11 - What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) They have the same status as ICAO Annexes Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

12 - (For this questions use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning "overhead-overhead" = 2h 42min Pressure Altitude = 7.500 ft Temperature = ISA Power setting = 2300 RPM Taxi Fuel = 2 USG Additional time for climb = 8 min, Additional time for approach and landing = 10 min The reserve fuel has to be 30% of trip fuel. Determine the minimum block fuel: (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

51.8 USG 37.7 USG 46.4 USG 48.4 USG

13 - What does the abbreviation "H24" stand for? Sunrise to sunset 24 h service No specific opening times Sunset to sunrise

14 - What is the lowest possible VFR flight level if a true course of 181° is selected and a variation of 3° east exists? FL 050 FL 060 FL 055 FL 065

15 - What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "no"? Negative Not Finish No

16 - A Grey-out is the result of... Hypoxia Tiredness Positive g-forces. Hyperventilation

17 - What does the abbreviation "QDR" stand for? True bearing from the station Magnetic bearing from the station Magnetic bearing to the station True bearing to the station

18 - Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw? Wing dihedral Full deflection of the aileron Aileron trim Differential aileron defletion

19 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for hypoxia? Smoking Menstruation Blood donation Diving

20 - A distance of 7.5 cm on an aeronautical chart represents a distance of 60.745 NM in reality. What is the chart scale? 1 : 500000 1 : 1 000000 1 : 150000 1 : 1500000

21 - In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately? Extrude, avoid, palliate, transfer Ignore, accept, transfer, extrude Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept Avoid, ignore, palliate, reduce

22 - What is the distance between the two parallels of longitude 150°E and 151°E along the equator? 60 km 111 NM 60 NM 1 NM

23 - Which answer is correct concerning stress?

Stress can occur if there seems to be no solution for a given problem Training and experience have no influence on the occurence of stress Stress and its different symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner

24 - What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

25 - Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)

26 - Where is the aircraft located in relation to the VOR? See annex (NAV-022) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 7

Northeast Southeast Southwest Northwest

27 - The center of gravity (CG) defines... The point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced. The point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass. The distance from the datum to the position of a mass. The product of mass and balance arm.

28 - What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe? Anti-knock rating Flame front speed Ignition timing Combustion temperature

29 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? Path is higher, IAS decreases Path is higher, IAS increases Path is lower, IAS decreases Path is lower, IAS increases

30 - Which constructive feature has the purpose to reduce stearing forces? T-tail Vortex generators Differential aileron deflection Aerodynamic rudder balance

31 - The sandwich structure consists of two... Thin layers and a light core material Thin layers and a heavy core material Thick layers and a heavy core material. Thick layers and a light core material.

32 - What change of wind direction can be expected during the passage of a polar front low in Central Europe? Backing wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front Backing wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front Veering wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front Veering wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front

33 - (For this questions use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning "overhead-overhead" = 2h 43min Pressure Altitude = 6.500 ft Temperature = ISA-20 Power setting = 2300 RPM Taxi Fuel = 2 USG Additional time for climb = 7 min, Additional time for approach and landing = 10 min The reserve fuel has to be 30% of trip fuel. Determine the minimum block fuel: (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

47.3 USG 50.4 USG 43.8 USG 39.2 USG

34 - An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 360° to a heading of 270°. At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated? 300° 360° 240° 270°

35 - The position of the the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile... Moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller. Is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge Moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller. Does not move since it is independent of the angle of attack.

36 - What action should be taken when entering a windshear? 1. Reduce speed 2. Retract gear and flaps 3. Maintain current configuration 4. Adjust thrust 2 and 4 1 and 2 1 and 3 3 and 4

37 - When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is required? Drain all engine tank oil Remove service equipment Drain all useable fuel Remove the batteries

38 - In a co-ordinated turn, how is the relation between the load factor (n) and the stall speed (Vs)? N is smaller than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight N is greater than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight. N is smaller than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight. N is greater than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight

39 - What does the reported runway condition "DAMP" mean? Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible Change of colour on the surface due to moisture The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow A large part of the surface is flooded

40 - Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct? The angle of attack cannot be negative Increasing the angle of attack results in decreasing lift The angle of attack is constant throughout the flight A too large angle of attack may result in a loss of lift

41 - Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear? Fog Invernal warm front. Thunderstorms Stable high pressure areas.

42 - Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton? Cyanose Tingling Spasm Disturbance of consciousness

43 - What does a readability of 3 indicate? The transmission is readable now and then The transmission is perfectly readable The transmission is readable but with difficulty The transmission is unreadable

44 - Which information from a ground station does not require readback? Runway in use Wind SSR-Code Altitude

45 - For the purpose of a flight preparation the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 725 kg and a total moment of 650 mmkg. Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG)? See annex (PFP-004) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 4

1 2 4 3

46 - Complacency is a risk due to... The high number of mistakes normally made by humans. Increased cockpit automation. The high error rate of technical systems. Better training options for young pilots.

47 - Which of the stated surfaces will reduce the wind speed most due to ground friction? Flat land, deserted land, no vegetation Oceanic areas Mountainous areas, vegetation cover Flat land, lots of vegetation cover

48 - What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft? To ensure grounding during refueling To discharge static charging during flight To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes

49 - What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)? Oxygen transport Blood coagulation Blood sugar regulation Immune defense

50 - Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently. Which action might avoid an unintentional descent? Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently. Which action might avoid an unintentional descent? Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, pick up speed and perform a left or a right turn in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst on the shortest way Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, increase pitch until attaining optimum climb speed Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, pick up speed in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst as fast as possible

51 - A frequency of 119.500 MHz is correctly transmitted as... One one niner tousand decimal five zero. One one niner decimal five One one niner decimal five zero. One one niner decimal five zero zero.

52 - The term "runway" is defined as a... Round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft Rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft. Rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.

53 - At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)? 18000 ft 5000 ft 10000 ft 22000 ft

54 - An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground. Rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. Rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air. Fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.

55 - What pressure pattern may result from cold-air inflow in high tropospheric layers? Formation of a low in the upper troposphere Formation of a high in the upper troposphere Formation of a large ground low Alternating pressure

56 - In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken? Turn off the heat Shut down the engine Turn off the master switch Use the fire extinguisher

57 - When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures? In descent In climb During the approach In horizontal flight

58 - The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground? QNH QNE QTE QFE

59 - The formation of medium to large precipitation particles requires... A high cloud base. Strong wind. An inversion layer. Strong updrafts.

60 - Which dangerous attitudes are often combined? Macho and invulnerability Impulsivity and carefulness Invulnerability and self-abandonment Self-abandonment and macho

61 - The "spread" is defined as... Relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air. Maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air. Difference between dew point and condensation point. Difference between actual temperature and dew point.

62 - Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire? Piston engines Turbine engines Electric motors Turboprop engines

63 - When extending the flaps for landing at constant angle of attack, in which way does the lift coefficient change far before reaching the maximum lift coefficient? It decreases It is not possible to define It increases It remains constant

64 - The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state... In which the aircraft is registered. Of the residence of the owner. In which the aircraft is constructed. In which the airworthiness review is done.

65 - What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays? Operational limits Caution areas Recommended areas Operational areas

66 - Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert? The lighter one has to climb Both have to divert to the right The heavier one has to climb Both have to divert to the left

67 - What information can be obtained from satallite images? Temperature and dew point of environmental air Turbulence and icing Flight visibility, ground visibility, and ground contact Overview of cloud covers and front lines

68 - What weather is likely to be experienced during "Foehn" in the Bavarian area close to the alps? High pressure area overhead Biskaya and low pressure area in Eastern Europe Cold, humid downhill wind on the lee side of the alps, flat pressure pattern Nimbostratus cloud in the northern alps, rotor clouds at the windward side, warm and dry wind Nimbostratus cloud in the southern alps, rotor clouds at the lee side, warm and dry wind

69 - The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according ISA is... 0,65° C / 100 m 3° C / 100 m. 1° C / 100 m 0,6° C / 100 m.

70 - The term "maximum elevation figure" (MEF) is defined as... The highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude. The highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude plus a safety margin, rounded to the next higher 100 ft. The highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude plus a safety margin of 1000 ft (305 m), rounded to the next higher 100 ft The highest elevation within an area covering 1 degree of latitude and 1 degree of longitude plus a safety margin, rounded to the next lower 100 ft.

71 - Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure? 12000 feet 22000 feet 5000 feet 7000 feet

72 - Which part of the visual system is responsible for colour vision? Cones Rods Macula Blind spot

73 - The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is... Kg x 2 = lb. Kg x 2.205 = lb. Kg / 2.205 = lb. Kg x 0.454 = lb

74 - The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the... Error chain. Procedure for an emergency landing. Optimal problem solution. State of readiness of a pilot.

75 - What does a cloud coverage of "SCT" mean in a METAR weather report? 1 to 2 eighths 8 eighths 3 to 4 eighths 5 to 7 eighths

76 - Which type of cloud is associated with prolonged rain? Cumulonimbus Cirrostratus Nimbostratus Altocumulus

77 - What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to airframe icing? =+5° to -10° C 0° to -12° C -20° to -40° C =+20° to -5° C

78 - An aircraft is flying at aFL 75 with an outside air temperature (OAT) of -9°C. The QNH altitude is 6500 ft. The true altitude equals... 6500 ft 6750 ft 7000 ft. 6250 ft.

79 - The position of the center of gravity (including fuel) equals... See figure(PFP-053e) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 2

37.1 cm 0.401 m 37.3 cm 0.403 m.

80 - The position of the center of gravity equals... See figure (PFP-052e) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1 147.5 in. 145.7 in. 142 in. 137.5 in

81 - The required data for a mass and balance calculation including masses and balance arms can be found in the... Performance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft Mass and balance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft Documentation of the annual inspection. Certificate of airworthiness.

82 - Given: Ground speed (GS): 160 kt. True course (TC): 177°. Wind vector (W/WS): 140°/20 kt. The true heading (TH) equals... 169°. 173° 184° 180°.

83 - The elevator deflection during take-off rotation... Is increased for a front centre of gravity. Is increased for a rear centre of gravity Is increased at high speeds. Is independent of the speed.

84 - 5500 m equal... 7500 ft. 18000 ft 10000 ft. 30000 ft.

85 - An attitude director indicator (ADI) combines the information provided by... The attitude indicator and the flight director. The directional gyro and the rate gyro. The attitude indicator and the relative bearing indicator. The attitude indicator and the radio magnetic indicator

86 - Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator? Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum

87 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"? Instrument flight conditions Variable meteorological conditions Visual meteorological conditions Visual flight rules

88 - The correct transponder code for emergencies is... 7700 7000 7600 7500

89 - When do you expect wind shear? During an inversion In calm wind in cold weather During a summer day with calm winds When passing a warm front

90 - Which are the properties of a Lambert conformal chart? Great circles are depicted as straight lines and the chart is an equal-area projection The chart is conformal and an equal-area projection The chart is conformal and nearly true to scale Rhumb lines are depicted as straight lines and the chart is conformal

91 - What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge? Reduced visibilty, maybe loss of sight to the airfield during final approach Formation of medium to heavy clear ice on all aircraft surfaces Heavy downdrafts within rainfall areas below thunderstorm clouds Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°

92 - Times are transmitted as... UTC Standard time. Local time. Time zone time

93 - What is the parallax error? Long-sightedness due to aging especially during night Wrong interpretation of instruments caused by the angle of vision Misperception of speed during taxiing A decoding error in communication between pilots

94 - What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects

95 - Under which circumstances is it more likely to accept higher risks? If there is not enough information available During check flights due to a high level of nervousness During flight planning when excellent weather is forecast Due to group-dynamic effects

96 - Given the following conditions, the TAS equals... Outside air temperature: 10° C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: 65 % See annex (PFP-014) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 13

96 kt. 92 kt 88 kt. 100 kt.

97 - What is the call sign of the flight information service? Info Advice Flight information Information

98 - Given: TC: 179°; WCA: -12°; VAR: 004° E; DEV: +002° What are MH and MC? MH: 167°. MC: 175°. MH: 167°. MC: 161°. MH: 163°. MC: 175°. MH: 163°. MC: 161°.

99 - Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory 2, 4 1 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3

100 - Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by... Fuel or hydraulic fluids. Generator failure. Cracks in the heat exchanger. Pitot icing.

101 - Number 3 in the drawing corresponds to the... See figure (PFA-010) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1

Chord Thickness Camber line Chord line.

102 - What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway Do not touch down before them Do not touch down behind them A ground roll could be started from this position

103 - What is the call sign of the aerodrome control? Tower Airfield Ground Control

104 - Wake turbulence is caused by... Wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil. Jet blast behind a turbine engine Turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range Pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

105 - Through which factor listed below does the load factor increase during cruise flight? A forward centre of gravity Higher aeroplane weight An upward gust Lower air density

106 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IFR"? Instrument Flight Rules Instrument Meteorological Conditions Bad Weather Flight Rules Commercial Flight Rules

107 - What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000 To obtain a clearance to enter this area

108 - Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected... During cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog Near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms During approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze During warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.

109 - Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength? Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic Aluminium Wood Magnesium

110 - How can you obtain meteorological information concerning airports during a cross-country flight? VOLMET GAMET METAR AIRMET

111 - Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia? Joint pain in knees and feet Muscle cramps in the upper body area Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails Blue marks all over the body

112 - The angle of attack is the angle between... The undisturbed airflow and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane. The chord line and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane The chord line and the oncoming airflow The wing and the fuselage of an aeroplane.

113 - The beginning of the green arc (2) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 8

VS1: Stall speed with flaps up VS0: Stall speed in landing configuration VFE: Maximum flap extended speed VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

114 - During a flight with a flight plan submitted, landing is conducted at an airfield other than the destination stated in the filed flight plan. Who has to be contacted by the pilot immediately? Local office for aereal supervision The flight manager on duty Aeronatical Information Service (AIS). The police department.

115 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? ( Temporary Reserved Airspace Temporary Radar Routing Area Transponder Area Terminal Area

116 - What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight? Visual reference to the terrain Speed not above 115 kt IAS At least 500 m ground visibilty A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m

117 - What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean? Some water patches are visible The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water A large part of the surface is flooded The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

118 - The transponder code in case of a radio communication failure is... 7700 7500 7000 7600

119 - Wake turbulence is particularly strong... At a high aeroplane weight. When flying with high thrust. When flying with low thrust. At a low aeroplane weight.

120 - What is the unit for electrical power? Ampere Ohm Watt Volt

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PPL(A) - Private Pilot License Exam Simulation

Quiz ppl-en 120 questions on 120 minutes