Quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes


1 - An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a...
2 - Given the following conditions, the climb speed equals... Outside air temperature: -20° C Pressure altitude: 10000 ft See annex (PFP-011)
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3 - An aeroplane has a heading of 090°. The distance which has to be flown is 90 NM. After 45 NM the aeroplane is 4.5 NM north of the planned flight path. What is the corrected heading to reach the arrival aerodrome directly?
4 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing from the station?
5 - What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?
6 - Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
7 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
8 - The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram? See figure (HPL-002) P = Performance A = Arousal / Stress
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9 - An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
10 - What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?
11 - Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?
12 - When transmitter and receiver are moving away from each other...
13 - The progress of an electromagnetic oscillation can be described by the...
14 - What does the reported runway condition "DAMP" mean?
15 - What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)?
16 - Given the following conditions, the TAS equals... Outside air temperature: 10° C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: 65 % See annex (PFP-014)
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17 - The term "inclination" is defined as...
18 - The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is...
19 - Which lines have to be used by the pilot to determine the aircraft's position?
20 - How should a power decrease be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure is described in the flight manual?
21 - What is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing, digestion, and heart frequency?
22 - A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive movement...
23 - Clouds are basically distinguished by what types?
24 - What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?
25 - Weather phenomena are most common to be found in which atmospheric layer?
26 - (For this question use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning "overhead-overhead" = 2h 43min Pressure Altitude = 6.500 ft Temperature = ISA-20 Power setting = 2300 RPM Taxi Fuel = 2 USG Additional time for climb = 7 min, Additional time for approach and landing = 10 min The reserve fuel has to be 30% of trip fuel. Determine the minimum block fuel:
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27 - A flight plan has been filed for a flight departing at an uncontrolled aerodrome. When has the actual take-off time been transmitted to ATC?
28 - Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"?
29 - Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by...
30 - Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have?
31 - Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is...
32 - What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?
33 - The movement of air flowing together is called...
34 - The total weight of an aeroplane is acting vertically through the...
35 - For the purpose of a flight preparation, the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 750 kg and a total moment of 625 mmkg. Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG)? See annex (PFP-003)
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36 - What is the function of the blood platelets (thrombocytes)?
37 - How does wind affect the take-off performance?
38 - Differential aileron deflection is used to...
39 - During a straight and steady climb, which force acts additionally, and in the same direction as the drag force, resulting in more power required for climb than for horizontal flight?
40 - When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with...
41 - A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in...
42 - With Central European Time (CET) given as UTC+1, what UTC time corresponds to 1700 CET?
43 - (For this question, use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Planning a flight from EDWF (Leer Papenburg) to EDWH (Oldenburg Hatten), the following conditions apply: Cruise level = FL 75 Temperature = ISA Cruise weight = 3400 lbs Power setting = 23.0 in. HG @ 2300 RPM Determine True Airspeed (TAS) and Fuel Flow (FF):
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44 - In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of...
45 - Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?
46 - What information can be obtained from satellite images?
47 - What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?
48 - What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?
49 - How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin?
50 - What should be observed when taxiing behind a commercial airliner?
51 - What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator?
52 - Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?
53 - 1000 ft equal...
54 - A risk factor for decompression sickness is...
55 - Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory
56 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"?
57 - Up to which altitude is an overflight prohibited according to the NOTAM? See figure (PFP-024)
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58 - How does a balance tab move in relation to the flight control surface that it is coupled with?
59 - What factors are required for the formation of precipitation in clouds?
60 - How can the pilot of an engine-driven aircraft minimise the noise emission during descent and approach?
61 - In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an incorrect altimeter reading?
62 - What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)?
63 - After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?
64 - In a co-ordinated turn, how is the relation between the load factor (n) and the stall speed (Vs)?
65 - Which process may result in an inversion layer at about 5000 ft (1500 m) height?
66 - The term "flight time" is defined as...
67 - A VHF direction finder (VDF) can determine...
68 - An aircraft is flying with a true airspeed (TAS) of 180 kt and a headwind component of 25 kt for 2 hours and 25 minutes. The distance flown equals...
69 - What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL?
70 - What must be considered for cross-border flights?
71 - Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?
72 - The result of a front C.G. position is: 1. Increase in stability. 2. Increase in fuel consumption. 3. Increase in stall speed. 4. Increase in range.
73 - Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? See figure (AGK-008)
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74 - Wake turbulence is particularly strong...
75 - During a flight with a flight plan submitted, landing is conducted at an airfield other than the destination stated in the filed flight plan. Who has to be contacted by the pilot immediately?
76 - The center of gravity has to be located...
77 - Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?
78 - What is the fuel flow and the true airspeed for cruise flight with 60 % power in flight level 85 at an OAT of -25° C? See annex (PFP-014)
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79 - Given the following data for a VFR flight: Trip fuel = 70 US gallons Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel Alternate and final reserve fuel = 20 US gallons Usable fuel at take-off = 95 US gallons After half of the distance you read that you have consumed 40 US gallons. Assume that fuel flow remains unchanged. Which statement is correct?
80 - Flying with speeds higher than the never-exceed-speed (vNE) may result in...
81 - What does a cloud coverage of "SCT" mean in a METAR weather report?
82 - Times are transmitted as...
83 - The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called...
84 - Electronic devices on board of an aeroplane have influence on the...
85 - What does the abbreviation "FIR" stand for?
86 - The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is...
87 - What is the mean height of the tropopause according to ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere)?
88 - The aerodynamic rudder balance...
89 - Rudder deflections result in a turn of the aeroplane around the...
90 - How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight?
91 - Under which conditions "back side weather" ("Rückseitenwetter") can be expected?
92 - Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QNH?
93 - What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights?
94 - (For this question, please use annex PFP-063) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a general spot elevation?
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95 - Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation?
96 - A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
97 - Which of the instruments listed below obtain their readings through pressure measurement?
98 - The term "tropopause" is defined as...
99 - What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge?
100 - The slip indicator's ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By what actions may the ball led back to middle position?
101 - The term 'civil twilight' is defined as...
102 - During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be...
103 - Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of...
104 - How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?
105 - The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the...
106 - Point number 5 in the figure indicates which flight state? See figure (PFA-008)
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107 - VOR radials are defined based on the principle of...
108 - Regularity messages are messages...
109 - Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
110 - Number 1 on the gear designates the... See figure (AGK-005)
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111 - The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the...
112 - Pressure compensation on a wing occurs at the...
113 - Assume calm wind and an aircraft descending from 9000 ft to 1500 ft. The rate of descent (ROD) equals 1200 ft/min. The elapsed time will be...
114 - Winds blowing downhill are defined as...
115 - The VFR semicircular rules are based on the...
116 - Winds blowing uphill are defined as...
117 - The distance between two airports is 220 NM. On an aeronautical navigation chart the pilot measures 40.7 cm for this distance. The chart scale is...
118 - Which constructive feature is shown in the figure? See figure (PFA-006) L: Lift
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119 - The aircraft is on radial... See annex (NAV-024)
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120 - Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured?