Exam quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License

Question 1

Which operational procedure statement is correct? Before take-off, loose articles should be...

Accepted Answer

secured

Answer

It is unrelated to runway condition

Answer

It changes magnetic variation

Answer

placed near the rudder pedals

Question 2

Using the attached fuel planning data for a representative SEP aeroplane, calculate the minimum block fuel for a VFR flight. Data: overhead-to-overhead flight time 2 h 43 min, pressure altitude 6500 ft, temperature ISA -20, power 2300 RPM, taxi fuel 2 USG, climb allowance 7 min, approach and landing allowance 10 min. For this planning exercise, reserve fuel is 30% of trip fuel. What is the minimum block fuel?

Accepted Answer

50.4 USG

Answer

47.3 USG

Answer

43.8 USG

Answer

39.2 USG

Question 3

An ATIS is valid for...

Accepted Answer

30 minutes.

Answer

10 minutes.

Answer

45 minutes.

Answer

60 minutes.

Question 4

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is...

Accepted Answer

Lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Answer

Proportional to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Answer

Higher than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Answer

Equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Question 5

What is correct about frequency congestion?

Accepted Answer

The pilot should listen before transmitting and keep calls concise

Answer

The pilot should transmit longer calls

Answer

It is a maintenance entry

Answer

It is used only for IFR flights

Question 6

Given the following information, what is the aircraft position at the cross bearing? VOR Hamburg (HAM) (53°41'N, 010°12'E): Radial 119° VOR Brünkendorf (BKD) (53°02'N, 011°33'E): Radial 320° See annex (NAV-031)

Accepted Answer

53°20'N, 011°10'E

Answer

52°20'N, 010°10'E

Answer

54°40'N, 012°50'E

Answer

53°40'N, 000°50'W

Question 7

In what cases is visibility transmitted in kilometers?

Accepted Answer

Greater than 5 km

Answer

Up to 10 km

Answer

Up to 5 km

Answer

Greater than 10 km

Question 8

What should a private pilot remember about frequency congestion?

Accepted Answer

The pilot should listen before transmitting and keep calls concise

Answer

It is used only in uncontrolled airspace

Answer

It is used only for passenger briefings

Answer

It applies only after shutdown

Question 9

What is correct about decision-making?

Accepted Answer

Conservative choices should be made early when margins reduce

Answer

The original plan must always continue

Answer

It replaces pre-flight planning

Answer

It always improves reaction time

Question 10

Readability 5 means...

Accepted Answer

perfectly readable

Answer

unreadable

Answer

readable now and then

Answer

readable with difficulty

Question 11

What range can be achieved at the following conditions? Outside air temperature: 6° C Pressure Altitude: 6000 ft Power: 65 % See annex (PFP-013)

Accepted Answer

482 NM

Answer

457 NM

Answer

503 NM

Answer

444 NM

Question 12

The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground?

Accepted Answer

QFE

Answer

QNH

Answer

QNE

Answer

QTE

Question 13

How should short-field technique be understood by a private pilot?

Accepted Answer

It uses the approved procedure to achieve performance with appropriate margins

Answer

It replaces obstacle assessment

Answer

It is ignored below maximum take-off mass

Answer

It changes aircraft registration

Question 14

What does a readability of 5 indicate?

Accepted Answer

The transmission is perfectly readable

Answer

The transmission is readable now and then

Answer

The transmission is readable but with difficulty

Answer

The transmission is unreadable

Question 15

Which option correctly describes a blocked pitot tube?

Accepted Answer

It can make the airspeed indication unreliable

Answer

It is unrelated to airworthiness

Answer

It is a pilot licence document

Answer

It sets the transponder code

Question 16

A pilot with a cold should be cautious because...

Accepted Answer

blocked sinuses or ears can cause barotrauma

Answer

colds improve oxygen uptake

Answer

colds remove fatigue

Answer

colds improve night vision

Question 17

The "spread" is defined as...

Accepted Answer

Difference between actual temperature and dew point.

Answer

Relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air.

Answer

Maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air.

Answer

Difference between dew point and condensation point.

Question 18

The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram? See figure (HPL-002) P = Performance A = Arousal / Stress

Accepted Answer

Point C

Answer

Point A

Answer

Point D

Answer

Point B

Question 19

For pre-flight preparation, which option correctly describes TAF?

Accepted Answer

It forecasts aerodrome weather for a specified period

Answer

It applies only after landing

Answer

It replaces NOTAM

Answer

It reports pilot medical validity

Question 20

What does a readability of 3 indicate?

Accepted Answer

The transmission is readable but with difficulty

Answer

The transmission is readable now and then

Answer

The transmission is perfectly readable

Answer

The transmission is unreadable

Question 21

In the ICAO spelling alphabet, the letter L is transmitted as...

Accepted Answer

Lima

Answer

Alpha

Answer

Alfa Romeo

Answer

Nectar

Question 22

Which meteorological statement is correct? Cumulonimbus clouds are associated with...

Accepted Answer

thunderstorms, turbulence, icing and hail

Answer

It is unrelated to wind or cloud

Answer

It applies only after landing

Answer

It is a runway marking

Question 23

Which of the following conditions are most favourable for ice accretion?

Accepted Answer

Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds)

Answer

Temperatures below 0° C, strong wind, sky clear of clouds

Answer

Temperatures between +10° C and -30° C, presence of hail (clouds)

Answer

Temperatures between -20° C and -40° C, presence of ice crystals (Ci clouds)

Question 24

Which statement about runway clearances is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?

Accepted Answer

Take-off, landing, crossing and backtrack clearances require careful readback

Answer

They are optional at controlled aerodromes

Answer

They are never read back

Answer

They are passenger instructions

Question 25

When preparing a PPL(A) flight, what is correct about ETA updates?

Accepted Answer

They support fuel management, daylight planning and arrival coordination

Answer

They change aircraft mass

Answer

They remove airspace limits

Answer

It replaces fuel planning

Question 26

The purpose of engine oil is to...

Accepted Answer

lubricate, cool and help seal engine components

Answer

increase wing lift

Answer

supply static pressure

Answer

replace the fuel system

Question 27

Cylinder head temperature indication relates to...

Accepted Answer

The critical cylinder

Answer

All Cylinders

Answer

A random cylinder

Answer

The average of all cylinders

Question 28

Given: QTE: 229° VAR: 10° W The QDM equals...

Accepted Answer

059°

Answer

039°

Answer

239°

Answer

049°

Question 29

For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about ground effect?

Accepted Answer

It reduces induced drag close to the ground and can affect landing and take-off behaviour

Answer

It is a navigation radio error

Answer

It changes aircraft registration

Answer

It is measured in litres

Question 30

What is the correct operational meaning of fire or smoke?

Accepted Answer

Aircraft control, checklist action, landing as soon as practicable and evacuation planning are priorities

Answer

It is a radio licence issue

Answer

It prevents all emergencies

Answer

Open all vents in every case without checklist

Question 31

The angle between compass north and magnetic north is called...

Accepted Answer

Deviation

Answer

WCA

Answer

Variation

Answer

Inclination

Question 32

Which statement is correct for QNH readback?

Accepted Answer

It helps ensure the correct altimeter setting is used

Answer

It is a runway surface condition

Answer

It is used only after landing

Answer

It changes QNH automatically

Question 33

Which statement about wind shear is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?

Accepted Answer

It can cause sudden changes in airspeed, flight path and performance

Answer

It improves landing distance

Answer

It exists only in cruise above FL300

Answer

It changes licence privileges

Question 34

The otolith organs sense...

Accepted Answer

linear acceleration and gravity

Answer

magnetic variation

Answer

engine rpm

Answer

radio frequency

Question 35

A wind shear is...

Accepted Answer

A vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.

Answer

A slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.

Answer

A wind speed change of more than 15 kt.

Answer

A meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.

Question 36

True course is 180° and magnetic variation is 2°W. What is the magnetic course?

Accepted Answer

182°

Answer

192°

Answer

180°

Answer

172°

Question 37

Which statement about diversion is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?

Accepted Answer

It should be planned early when weather, fuel, daylight or aircraft status reduces margins

Answer

It is a failure of airmanship

Answer

It is prohibited under VFR

Answer

It removes reserve requirements

Question 38

How should departures near villages be carried out?

Accepted Answer

Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude

Answer

Slow with a low propeller rotation speed

Answer

Low and fast between the villages

Answer

Climb and changes in direction should be done as slow as possible

Question 39

Which meteorological statement is correct? Carburettor icing can occur...

Accepted Answer

at temperatures well above 0 °C when humidity is high

Answer

It is checked only once per year

Answer

It applies only to turbine aircraft

Answer

only with fuel tanks empty

Question 40

In normal private flying, which statement about soft-field technique is correct?

Accepted Answer

It aims to reduce drag from the surface and protect the nose wheel

Answer

It is a maintenance interval

Answer

It is always favourable in tailwind

Answer

It ignores performance data

Question 41

What is an Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) mainly used for?

Accepted Answer

aeronautical information of explanatory or advisory nature

Answer

It is a runway lighting signal only

Answer

It applies only to commercial air transport

Answer

It is used only after landing

Question 42

Which principle of flight statement is correct? Longitudinal stability is stability around the...

Accepted Answer

lateral axis

Answer

vertical axis

Answer

It applies only on the ground

Answer

It is a runway lighting signal

Question 43

What is the correct phrase to begin a blind transmission?

Accepted Answer

Transmitting blind

Answer

Blind

Answer

No reception

Answer

Listen

Question 44

The correct transponder code for emergencies is...

Accepted Answer

7700

Answer

7000

Answer

7600

Answer

7500

Question 45

On final approach, wind shear suddenly increases the headwind. Without pilot correction, what happens to flight path and IAS?

Accepted Answer

Path is higher, IAS increases

Answer

Path is higher, IAS decreases

Answer

Path is lower, IAS increases

Answer

Path is lower, IAS decreases

Question 46

When preparing a PPL(A) flight, what is correct about QDM and QDR?

Accepted Answer

QDM is magnetic bearing to a station and QDR is magnetic bearing from it

Answer

Both are fuel quantities

Answer

It is a passenger briefing item

Answer

It is used only after landing

Question 47

For safe PPL(A) operation, how should runway slope be understood?

Accepted Answer

It affects acceleration during take-off and deceleration during landing

Answer

It is set by the transponder

Answer

It applies only to IFR flights

Answer

It removes fuel reserve requirements

Question 48

In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?

Accepted Answer

Loss of radio

Answer

Hijacking

Answer

Emergency

Answer

Flight into clouds

Question 49

Which human performance statement is correct? Bright light at night can...

Accepted Answer

degrade dark adaptation

Answer

It is solved by ignoring symptoms

Answer

It is relevant only above FL200

Answer

It is prevented by flying faster

Question 50

How should airspace monitoring be understood by a private pilot?

Accepted Answer

Position, altitude and route must be monitored to avoid infringements

Answer

It is the same as QNH

Answer

It cancels controlled airspace limits

Answer

It replaces NOTAM checks

Question 51

In normal private flying, which statement about airspace monitoring is correct?

Accepted Answer

Position, altitude and route must be monitored to avoid infringements

Answer

It cancels controlled airspace limits

Answer

It replaces NOTAM checks

Answer

It is used only after landing

Question 52

Given: TC: 183°; WCA: +011°; MH: 198°; CH: 200° What are TH and VAR?

Accepted Answer

TH: 194°. VAR: 004° W

Answer

TH: 194°. VAR: 004° E

Answer

TH: 172°. VAR: 004° W

Answer

TH: 172°. VAR: 004° E

Question 53

True course is 015° and magnetic variation is 3°E. What is the magnetic course?

Accepted Answer

012°

Answer

022°

Answer

015°

Answer

002°

Question 54

Which practical rule applies to parasite drag?

Accepted Answer

It generally increases as airspeed increases

Answer

It removes the need for aircraft control

Answer

It is unrelated to angle of attack

Answer

It is a runway lighting signal

Question 55

In normal private flying, which statement about wind correction angle is correct?

Accepted Answer

It is applied to maintain the desired track over the ground

Answer

It is used only after landing

Answer

It removes the need for lookout

Answer

It is a maintenance inspection interval

Question 56

SIGMET warnings are issued for...

Accepted Answer

FIRs / UIRs

Answer

Specific routings.

Answer

Airports

Answer

Countries

Question 57

The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state...

Accepted Answer

In which the aircraft is registered.

Answer

Of the residence of the owner.

Answer

In which the aircraft is constructed.

Answer

In which the airworthiness review is done.

Question 58

Which statement is correct for hyperventilation?

Accepted Answer

It can cause dizziness and tingling and may be confused with hypoxia

Answer

It is measured by the altimeter

Answer

It increases oxygen saturation usefully in all cases

Answer

It improves decision-making

Question 59

In the ICAO spelling alphabet, the letter A is transmitted as...

Accepted Answer

Alfa

Answer

Alpha

Answer

Alfa Romeo

Answer

Nectar

Question 60

Distress messages are messages...

Accepted Answer

Concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance.

Answer

Concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.

Answer

Sent by a pilot or an aircraft operating agency which have an imminent meaning for aircraft in flight.

Answer

Concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities which are important for the safety and regularity of flight operations.

Question 61

Which transponder code indicates a radio failure?

Accepted Answer

7600

Answer

7700

Answer

7500

Answer

7000

Question 62

For a given aircraft weight and configuration, wake turbulence is strongest when the generating aircraft is...

Accepted Answer

When flying at low speeds

Answer

When flying at high speeds

Answer

When flying at high altitudes

Answer

When flying at low altitudes

Question 63

The static pressure of gases work...

Accepted Answer

In all directions.

Answer

Only vertical to the flow direction.

Answer

Only in the direction of the total pressure.

Answer

Only in flow direction.

Question 64

What should a private pilot remember about cumulonimbus?

Accepted Answer

It is associated with thunderstorms, severe turbulence, icing, hail and wind shear

Answer

It is a radio licence condition

Answer

It is checked only once per year

Answer

It always reduces landing distance

Exam Simulation - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License

Quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes

Exam Simulation - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License

Quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes

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