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Exam Simulation - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License

Quiz EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Which item from an aerodrome information transmission does not normally require readback?
2 - For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about weather alternates?
3 - Cylinder head temperature indication relates to...
4 - The sun moves 10° of longitude. What is the difference in time?
5 - A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an...
6 - Which meteorological statement is correct? In METAR, CAVOK means...
7 - In airspace class C, what should a PPL(A) pilot remember below FL 100?
8 - What is meant by "ground effect"?
9 - Which of the items on the attached checklist are related to the direct reading compass? See annex (NAV-004)
question 90-40.webp
10 - What should a private pilot remember about flap limitations?
11 - What is correct about oil pressure?
12 - For pre-flight preparation, which option correctly describes centre of gravity and stability?
13 - In which way does the position of the centre of pressure move at a positively shaped profile with increasing angle of attack?
14 - During cross-country planning, what is correct about engine temperatures?
15 - How should weather alternates be understood by a private pilot?
16 - The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called...
17 - What is the correct operational meaning of spin?
18 - Dihedral contributes mainly to...
19 - What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?
20 - Which performance or flight planning statement is correct? A downhill runway slope on landing normally...
21 - POH take-off distance is 450 m. If planning conservatively for 10 kt tailwind with a factor of 1.15, what distance should be allowed?
22 - Which statement about radio check readability is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?
23 - Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace?
24 - Which option correctly describes runway clearances?
25 - What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
26 - The speed VFE is defined as...
27 - What should a private pilot remember about GNSS?
28 - Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?
29 - What should a private pilot remember about magneto checks?
30 - Magnetic variation is the angle between...
31 - A cracked cabin heat exchanger can cause which hazard?
32 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
33 - Which statement is correct for compass deviation?
34 - How should engine failure after take-off be understood by a private pilot?
35 - In a light aeroplane, the mixture control is to...
36 - Which of the following options is likely to produce large induced drag?
37 - Confirmation bias means...
38 - Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety message?
39 - A vacuum system may be used to drive...
40 - What is correct about passenger briefing?
41 - Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?
42 - Loads must be adequately secured in order to...
43 - The emergency frequency commonly used in aviation VHF is...
44 - Which statement is correct for density altitude?
45 - An aeroplane has a heading of 090°. The distance which has to be flown is 90 NM. After 45 NM the aeroplane is 4.5 NM north of the planned flight path. What is the corrected heading to reach the arrival aerodrome directly?
46 - Magnetic heading is 182° and compass deviation is 1°E. What compass heading should be flown?
47 - Which cylinder arrangement is commonly used on small aircraft and motor gliders?
48 - In controlled airspace below FL 100, the standard VFR flight visibility is at least...
49 - During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and subsequently back to BOTH. What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly grounded?
50 - What should a private pilot remember about ATIS information?
51 - What structural item provides lateral stability to an aeroplane?
52 - Which meteorological statement is correct? In METAR, BKN means...
53 - The distance between the centre of gravity and the datum is called...
54 - Which meteorological statement is correct? In METAR, TS indicates...
55 - Which operational procedure statement is correct? If unsure of taxi clearance, the pilot should...
56 - Which operational procedure statement is correct? A go-around should be initiated when...
57 - What is required before a VFR pilot enters controlled airspace when clearance is required?
58 - When briefing a VFR flight, what should a private pilot remember about VOR radials?
59 - Which meteorological statement is correct? QFE set on the altimeter indicates...
60 - Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of wind shear?
61 - When briefing a VFR flight, which option correctly describes climb performance?
62 - Which human performance statement is correct? Alcohol before flight...
63 - What happens to a helicopter during cruise when the stick is moved forward without other corrections?
64 - The compass error caused by the aircraft's magnetic field is called...
65 - The rotational axis of the Earth runs through the...
66 - Which navigation statement is correct? A great circle is...
67 - In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?
68 - Which statement about abnormal vibration is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?
69 - The compass deviation card provides...
70 - The on-board equipment of the secondary surveillance radar (SSR) is called...
71 - What is the approximate load factor in a level 45° banked turn?
72 - What chart shows areas of precipitation?
73 - Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QFE?
74 - Startle effect can be reduced by...
75 - Which statement about SERA is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?
76 - A TAF is primarily...
77 - Which practical rule applies to carburettor icing?
78 - What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?
79 - Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of compass deviation?
80 - Which principle of flight statement is correct? Adverse yaw is caused mainly by...
81 - In practical private flying, what is the correct operational meaning of engine failure after take-off?
82 - Which navigation statement is correct? Dead reckoning navigation uses...
83 - What is the call sign of the flight information service?
84 - For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about aircraft documents?
85 - An aircraft travels 100 km in 56 minutes. The ground speed (GS) equals...
86 - The standard VFR cloud separation in controlled airspace is...
87 - Which principle of flight statement is correct? An aft centre of gravity generally...
88 - When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with...
89 - What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?
90 - A warm front often brings...
91 - Given the following conditions, the TAS equals... Outside air temperature: 10° C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: 65 % See annex (PFP-014)
question 70-62-63-68.webp
92 - Number 2 on the gear designates the... See figure (AGK-005)
question 80-16-18.webp
93 - The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according to ISA is...
94 - The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground?
95 - Which human performance statement is correct? An early symptom of hypoxia may be...
96 - For safe PPL(A) operation, which option correctly describes hyperventilation?
97 - Which statement about MAYDAY is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?
98 - Which statement is correct for headwind and tailwind?
99 - Spatial disorientation is more likely...
100 - Which human performance statement is correct? A high workload may cause...
101 - Which statement is correct? The green arc on an airspeed indicator normally represents...
102 - For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about groundspeed?
103 - How should coordinated flight be understood by a private pilot?
104 - For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about stall speed in a turn?
105 - POH take-off distance is 520 m. If planning conservatively for wet grass with a factor of 1.20, what distance should be allowed?
106 - What should a private pilot remember about METAR?
107 - Distance is 60 NM and groundspeed is 120 kt. What is the estimated time en route?
108 - What is the take-off distance at 705 kg take-off mass, OAT 20° C, QNH 1013 hPa at an elevation of 3500 ft with 5 kt tailwind? See annex (PFP-009)
question 70-53-55-56.webp
109 - Distance is 80 NM and groundspeed is 160 kt. What is the estimated time en route?
110 - What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope?
111 - Which statement is correct for QNH readback?
112 - Which statement about climb performance is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?
113 - Which human performance statement is correct? The most effective way to manage fatigue is...
114 - Point A on the Earth's surface lies exactly on the parallel of latitude of 47°50'27''N. Which point is exactly 240 NM north of A?
115 - When is it necessary to adjust the pressure in the reference scale of an altimeter?
116 - What is the correct operational meaning of workload management?
117 - What should a private pilot remember about hypoxia?
118 - In the ICAO spelling alphabet, the letter T is transmitted as...
119 - Fuel flow is 36 L/h and flight time is 50 minutes. How much fuel is required?
120 - For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about engine failure after take-off?