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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
2 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
3 - Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
4 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
5 - AIP: Which part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'?
6 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
7 - Under Part-MED, for initial issue or renewal of a medical certificate, its validity period is calculated from the date on which:
8 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
9 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
10 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
11 - Avoidance of collisions. The highest priority for landing has:
12 - An aircraft outside RVSM airspace is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
13 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
14 - A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
15 - Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
16 - In relation to ATS airspace dimensions, which statement is correct?
17 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
18 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
19 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
20 - Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
21 - Under Part-FCL, an FI(A) whose privileges are restricted under FCL.910.FI conducts instruction under the supervision of an appropriately nominated FI(A). What experience is required to remove these restrictions from the FI certificate?
22 - The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
23 - SSR special codes. ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
24 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
25 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
26 - To act as pilot in commercial air transport with an ATPL, the minimum age and the age from which this is no longer permitted are:
27 - In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
28 - Under SERA, what defines a controlled aerodrome?
29 - Under Part-FCL Appendix 3, what is the minimum total flying-training time for the CPL(A) integrated course, excluding type-rating training and including any permitted instrument ground time?
30 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
31 - Under PANS-OPS, for a non-precision straight-in approach procedure restricted to aeroplane Categories A and B, what is the maximum permitted angle between the final approach track and runway centre line, with the other alignment criteria also satisfied?
32 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
33 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
34 - Under current EU AIS requirements, what collective term covers AIP, amendments and supplements, NOTAM, AIC, aeronautical charts and digital data sets when available?
35 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
36 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
37 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
38 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
39 - Under ICAO Annex 17, who must be informed when passengers are obliged to travel because of judicial or administrative proceedings, so that appropriate security controls can be applied?
40 - Type ratings shall be established
41 - Under the traditional HEAVY/MEDIUM/LIGHT wake-turbulence categories, without a different approved wake scheme, a MEDIUM aircraft takes off behind a HEAVY aircraft from the same full-length starting point on the same runway. What minimum time separation applies?
42 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
43 - Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
44 - An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
45 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
46 - Under Part-FCL, what are the CPL(A) holder's PIC privileges in operations other than commercial air transport, subject to holding the appropriate valid ratings and meeting applicable operational requirements?
47 - According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic:
48 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
49 - The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
50 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
51 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
52 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
53 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
54 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals):
55 - Under Part-FCL, which combination permits a person to give flight instruction in an aeroplane for the issue of a PPL(A), subject to the applicable privileges and conditions?
56 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
57 - When approved by the competent authority and supported by the local surveillance capability, to what value may the general 5 NM radar/ADS-B/MLAT horizontal separation minimum be reduced, excluding the special 2.5 NM final-approach procedure?
58 - For which purpose are clearances issued by an ATC unit?
59 - The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
60 - An Air Traffic Control Unit:
61 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
62 - Radar-controlled aircraft are being vectored near the boundary between adjoining controlled airspace volumes. With a prescribed separation minimum of 5 NM and no special local arrangement or transfer of control, how close may they be vectored to that boundary?
63 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
64 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
65 - Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE' is:
66 - Temporary long-term modifications (3 months or more), and short-term information that is extensive or graphical, are published as:
67 - A required transponder is unserviceable before departure and cannot be repaired at the departure aerodrome. Which statement describes the SERA obligations before a flight requiring a functioning transponder?
68 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
69 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
70 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
71 - Under current EU aerodrome requirements, what colour and operating mode apply to Type C low-intensity obstacle lights on ordinary vehicles, excluding emergency, security and follow-me vehicles?
72 - Air Traffic Service unit means:
73 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
74 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
75 - Approach procedures - missed approach climb. Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
76 - Which main part of the AIP contains the general statement of the criteria used to establish holding, approach and departure procedures, rather than the individual procedures for a particular aerodrome?
77 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
78 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
79 - 'Cabotage' refers to:
80 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
81 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
82 - Passenger A and cabin baggage have been screened; passenger B and cabin baggage have not. The two passengers mix so that the protection of the screened passenger and baggage from unauthorised interference is compromised. Which complete screening action is required before boarding?
83 - Two aircraft fly on the same track at the same cruising level with equal TAS. Both use the same on-track DME station and their longitudinal separation is checked frequently using simultaneous DME readings. What general minimum distance applies, without a reduction based on a TAS advantage?
84 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer. When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
85 - Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
86 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
87 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
88 - Under SERA.4015(b), at what delay of a controlled flight must the submitted flight plan be amended, or cancelled and replaced? This is separate from the additional requirement to notify the Network Manager of IFR delays exceeding 15 minutes.
89 - Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
90 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
91 - For a normal Special VFR flight in a control zone, excluding an emergency and any specifically prescribed ANSP exception for aerodrome traffic, what is required concerning clearance and communications?
92 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
93 - Under the Tokyo Convention as amended by the Montreal Protocol 2014, the aircraft commander has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed a serious offence on board. On landing in a Contracting State, which statement is correct?
94 - Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: a special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
95 - The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
96 - While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
97 - The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
98 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
99 - When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of
100 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
101 - Under Part-FCL, an ATPL(A) applicant using the combined PIC/PICUS route in FCL.510.A(b)(2)(iii) must complete at least how many hours in total on that route, including how many hours as PIC, with the remainder as PIC under supervision?
102 - Subject to the appropriate ATC clearance and applicable obstacle-clearance minima, in which of the following cases may an approaching IFR aircraft descend below the general MSA?
103 - In the current Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM), which pilot-reported runway braking-action term corresponds to Runway Condition Code 1?
104 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
105 - A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
106 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
107 - Under Part-FCL, unless otherwise specified in that Part, what proportion of flight time as a required co-pilot may be credited towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence?
108 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
109 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
110 - Which statement correctly describes mandatory instruction signs at an aerodrome?
111 - The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination.
112 - AIP: Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
113 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segments. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
114 - Apart from cumulonimbus, which are included separately, and vertical visibility when the sky is obscured, which cloud layers are included in an ATIS broadcast containing departure and arrival information?
115 - Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
116 - Which medical-certificate categories are provided for pilots under Part-MED?
117 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
118 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
119 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the 'Code number 4' shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
120 - Under the current ICAO Annex 11 ATS route-designator system, what does a supplementary letter G added after the basic route designator indicate?
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