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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
2 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
3 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
4 - The second freedom of the air is the:
5 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
6 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
7 - What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
8 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
9 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
10 - Holding procedures (entry)You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°.You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
11 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
12 - Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach segmentWhat is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
13 - According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
14 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
15 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
16 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
17 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for an IR shall hold a PPL including a night qualification or CPL and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
18 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
19 - An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
20 - General provisions - amended clearanceIf an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
21 - Approach procedures - CirclingThe visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
22 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
23 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
24 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft:
25 - A system providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is known as:
26 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
27 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
28 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
29 - Communications Failure - Flight ProceduresYou are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route.At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'.At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
30 - The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
31 - When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
32 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition AltitudeThe transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
33 - A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
34 - The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
35 - A so called 'Visual Approach' can be performed:
36 - In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
37 - When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a Mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
38 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within:
39 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
40 - Which code shall be used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
41 - Holding procedures - Offset EntryAbove 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
42 - Visual Flight RulesAn aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
43 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
44 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
45 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
46 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
47 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
48 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
49 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
50 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
51 - On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
52 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is:
53 - Type ratings shall be established
54 - The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
55 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
56 - When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of
57 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
58 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
59 - Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-inA so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
60 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
61 - According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:
62 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
63 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
64 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
65 - The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
66 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
67 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
68 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
69 - A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
70 - Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is:A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track.The tracks are not reciprocal.
71 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle ClearanceThe minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
72 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
73 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
74 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
75 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
76 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
77 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
78 - AuthorityThe final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is the:
79 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
80 - When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
81 - AIPWhich part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
82 - An AIRAC is:
83 - The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
84 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
85 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:
86 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
87 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
88 - Altimeter setting (change during climb)On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:
89 - Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
90 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
91 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
92 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
93 - The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
94 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / levelIn the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
95 - According to Part-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
96 - Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
97 - Accident investigation, objectiveThe sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
98 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
99 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
100 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.
101 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
102 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition LayerWhen flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
103 - Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures:
104 - An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
105 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
106 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'?
107 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
108 - Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
109 - SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
110 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
111 - Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
112 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
113 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
114 - Approach Procedures - CirclingIt is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
115 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
116 - Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
117 - Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
118 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
119 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
120 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
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