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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanesshall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrument rules and an engine _________.
2 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:
3 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
4 - Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
5 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
6 - Holding procedures (entry)You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°.You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
7 - What is a 'barrette'?
8 - In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
9 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
10 - The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
11 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
12 - According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic:
13 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
14 - You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
15 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.
16 - A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
17 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
18 - OCAAn OCA is referenced to:
19 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
20 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
21 - Separation Methods and Minima - GeneralWhat are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
22 - Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
23 - A 'RNAV' distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' way-point. This minimum is:
24 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
25 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
26 - The First Freedom of the Air is:
27 - Which 'code letter' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
28 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition AltitudeThe transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
29 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
30 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach SegmentsThe minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
31 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
32 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separationThe Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
33 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
34 - InterceptionAn aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A
35 - AIPWhich part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
36 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
37 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
38 - To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E :
39 - When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and repair at departure airport is impossible, then:
40 - The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
41 - The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
42 - ATIS broadcast
43 - Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
44 - How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircraft subjected to unlawful interference to be not less than?
45 - Circling approachOne of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
46 - Runway end lights shall be:
47 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
48 - A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
49 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearanceWhen does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
50 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
51 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
52 - Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
53 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
54 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
55 - During radar-control, a 'radar-controller' shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 'tower-controller' has not issued a 'landing-clearance' at the moment the aircraft is:
56 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
57 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
58 - The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
59 - For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
60 - Approach procedures - Final approach segmentIn a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
61 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
62 - While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
63 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
64 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
65 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
66 - The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
67 - What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
68 - Holding procedures - Offset EntryAbove 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
69 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
70 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre.Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter.The command of the situation is the responsibility of:
71 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight DeparturesA straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
72 - A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
73 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
74 - According to PART-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:
75 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle ClearanceThe minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
76 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
77 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
78 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
79 - AbbreviationsIn Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
80 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
81 - Which statement is correct?
82 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
83 - Holding proceduresIf for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
84 - The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be aspilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
85 - According to PART-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
86 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
87 - According to Part-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
88 - Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
89 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
90 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
91 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
92 - Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSAMinimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome.How many NM is the radius of this circle?
93 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
94 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
95 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
96 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
97 - AIPWhich part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
98 - Search and RescueThe colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
99 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
100 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
101 - According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
102 - An AIRAC is:
103 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
104 - Holding procedures (outbound time)The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
105 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
106 - In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
107 - Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
108 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
109 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at twodifferent aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
110 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
111 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
112 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
113 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
114 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
115 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
116 - The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
117 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
118 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
119 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
120 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
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