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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
2 - SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
3 - An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
4 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
5 - The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
6 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
7 - Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
8 - A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
9 - Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
10 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correctionFlying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
11 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
12 - High intensity obstacle lights should be:
13 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
14 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
15 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
16 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
17 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
18 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
19 - If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
20 - The second freedom of the air is the:
21 - A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
22 - Medical examination is normally limited to those people arriving from an area infected with which of the following quarantinable diseases?
23 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
24 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
25 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
26 - Separation - VMC and own separationThe 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft.The conditions are:
27 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
28 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
29 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
30 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
31 - Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
32 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
33 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
34 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
35 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
36 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
37 - The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
38 - An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
39 - The aim of aviation security is the following:
40 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
41 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
42 - Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
43 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
44 - The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
45 - 'Cabotage' refers to:
46 - Visual Flight RulesAn aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
47 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
48 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
49 - The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
50 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
51 - Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
52 - When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting State as a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes:
53 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition AltitudeThe transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
54 - Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
55 - Holding procedures (outbound time)The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
56 - What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
57 - The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
58 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
59 - ATIS broadcast
60 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
61 - Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures:
62 - Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
63 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
64 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
65 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
66 - In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
67 - A 'RNAV' distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' way-point. This minimum is:
68 - When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
69 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
70 - Search and RescueThe colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid equipment is
71 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
72 - The ground-air signal "NN" means:
73 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
74 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
75 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
76 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
77 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
78 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
79 - Which statement is correct?
80 - Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
81 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
82 - Aircraft 'A' with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area.Aircraft 'B' with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course.Which has the right of way?
83 - A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
84 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
85 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
86 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for:
87 - The pilot in command of an aircraft 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the 'pilot flying'. 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
88 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
89 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
90 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
91 - A rescue unit is:
92 - The loading limitations shall include:
93 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
94 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
95 - The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
96 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
97 - Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
98 - Holding procedures (entry)You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°.You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
99 - For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following?
100 - In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non-traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
101 - During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
102 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
103 - The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
104 - According to PART-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
105 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
106 - Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
107 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
108 - Avoidance of collisionsThe highest priority for landing has:
109 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
110 - The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
111 - Arrival and Approach segments, GeneralWhat are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
112 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
113 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
114 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
115 - Air Traffic Service unit means:
116 - The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanesshall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrument rules and an engine _________.
117 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
118 - Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
119 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
120 - What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
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