Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
EN angle-down

Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject New Test
1 - Subject to the appropriate ATC clearance and applicable obstacle-clearance minima, in which of the following cases may an approaching IFR aircraft descend below the general MSA?
2 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
3 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
4 - Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
5 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
6 - Approach Procedures - Circling. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
7 - A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
8 - What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors?
9 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
10 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
11 - AIP: Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
12 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance. The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
13 - Two en-route aircraft fly on the same track at the same cruising level and have reported over the same exact significant point. The preceding aircraft maintains a TAS of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. Under the time-based procedural separation rule for this case, what longitudinal minimum may be applied?
14 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
15 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft outside RVSM airspace shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
16 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
17 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
18 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
19 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
20 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
21 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
22 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
23 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
24 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
25 - Except for the red lights before a displaced threshold, which option gives the most complete description of runway edge lights, including the caution section at the remote end of the runway?
26 - Holding Procedures - Buffer Area. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
27 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
28 - Under Part-FCL, an FI(A) whose privileges are restricted under FCL.910.FI conducts instruction under the supervision of an appropriately nominated FI(A). What experience is required to remove these restrictions from the FI certificate?
29 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
30 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
31 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
32 - Under ICAO Annex 17, who must be informed when passengers are obliged to travel because of judicial or administrative proceedings, so that appropriate security controls can be applied?
33 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
34 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals):
35 - Under ICAO Annex 17, when passengers are obliged to travel because of judicial or administrative proceedings, what must the operator's security programme include?
36 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
37 - According to PART-FCL (and OSD data), the establishment of a separate type rating for aeroplanes is assessed based on criteria including whether the aeroplane has:
38 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
39 - Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
40 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
41 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
42 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
43 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
44 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
45 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
46 - Under ICAO Annex 11, on the basis of a regional air navigation agreement, what is the method combining vertical separation with a horizontal form of separation, using a minimum for each that may be lower than, but not less than half of, the respective individual minimum?
47 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
48 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
49 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
50 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
51 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
52 - Two en-route aircraft fly on the same track at the same cruising level and have reported over the same exact significant point. The preceding aircraft maintains a TAS of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. Under the time-based procedural separation rule for this case, what longitudinal minimum may be applied?
53 - SSR special codes. ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
54 - Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
55 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
56 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
57 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
58 - When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft you shall:
59 - The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
60 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
61 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
62 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS. The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
63 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
64 - Under SERA, what is the general IAS limitation in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL, when no specific higher-speed authorisation applies?
65 - An Air Traffic Control Unit:
66 - Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches. A 'Timed Approach Procedure' may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to
67 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
68 - Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
69 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
70 - Which pair of airspace classes permits IFR and VFR flights without requiring an ATC clearance, with flight information service available on request?
71 - Under the RNAV distance-based Mach number technique procedure, aircraft fly on same-direction tracks and report simultaneous distances to or from the same on-track common point. When one aircraft climbs or descends through the other aircraft's level, the other holds its level and all procedural requirements are met. What minimum longitudinal distance is required while vertical separation does not exist?
72 - The second freedom of the air is the:
73 - An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
74 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
75 - Under SERA, what defines a controlled aerodrome?
76 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
77 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
78 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
79 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
80 - Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
81 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
82 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
83 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
84 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter. The command of the situation is the responsibility of:
85 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
86 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
87 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
88 - Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: a special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
89 - When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
90 - What is meant when departure control instruct you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?
91 - The validity of the instrument rating (IR) is:
92 - Under the traditional SUPER/HEAVY/MEDIUM/LIGHT distance-based wake-turbulence categories, a LIGHT aircraft is being provided with an ATS surveillance service on approach directly behind a HEAVY aircraft to the same runway. No alternative wake scheme applies. What is the minimum wake-turbulence separation?
93 - For an ATS unit that does not utilise data-link communications, clocks and other time-recording devices must be checked as necessary to keep the correct time within plus or minus:
94 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
95 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
96 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
97 - For a VFR flight in Class E airspace, outside any radio mandatory zone and with no other local mandatory-radio requirement, which statement is correct?
98 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
99 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
100 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is:
101 - Under the Tokyo Convention as amended by the Montreal Protocol 2014, the aircraft commander has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed a serious offence on board. On landing in a Contracting State, which statement is correct?
102 - Type ratings shall be established
103 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
104 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
105 - Arrival and Approach segments, General. What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
106 - Which main part of the AIP contains the general statement of the criteria used to establish holding, approach and departure procedures, rather than the individual procedures for a particular aerodrome?
107 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
108 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
109 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
110 - Under the current ICAO Annex 11 ATS route-designator system, what does a supplementary letter F added after the basic route designator indicate?
111 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
112 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
113 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
114 - When the general surveillance reduction is approved and the special 2.5 NM final-approach procedure is not used, which statement correctly gives the minimum radar separation for aircraft established on the same localizer course, before any greater wake-turbulence requirement?
115 - Under Part-FCL, unless otherwise specified in that Part, how much PICUS flight time may a licence holder credit towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence?
116 - Under current SERA rules, a controlled flight is at cruising level without an ATC-assigned speed. At what sustained variation of true airspeed from the current flight plan must the appropriate ATS unit be informed?
117 - ICAO Annex 9 recommends waiving the visa requirement for crew members arriving on another aircraft operator or another mode of transport, seeking temporary entry to join their assigned flight in a duty status. Which document is specified in that recommendation?
118 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
119 - Which of the following is binding for ICAO Contracting States?
120 - Under Part-FCL, an ATPL(A) applicant using the combined PIC/PICUS route in FCL.510.A(b)(2)(iii) must complete at least how many hours in total on that route, including how many hours as PIC, with the remainder as PIC under supervision?
3 Days
Free Trial
No Payment Required
No Subscription
Start for free
PRO
★★★★★ 4,7/5
Quizvds PRO
All Questions Included
View portal plans
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free
Download mobile apps
Google Play App Store
© 2026 EGWeb di Guatta Mattia - VAT: 04768540983