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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
2 - Holding procedures (entry). You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
3 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
4 - The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
5 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
6 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
7 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
8 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
9 - What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
10 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
11 - A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
12 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
13 - The validity of the instrument rating (IR) is:
14 - The ground-air signal "NN" means:
15 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
16 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command, including a cross-country flight totalling not less than........ km (-NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred to are:
17 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
18 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc 4444)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
19 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
20 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
21 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
22 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
23 - A so called 'Visual Approach' can be performed:
24 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
25 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
26 - The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination.
27 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
28 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
29 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals):
30 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
31 - Which statement correctly describes mandatory instruction signs at an aerodrome?
32 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
33 - An AIRAC is:
34 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
35 - If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
36 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
37 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
38 - An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
39 - SSR - Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
40 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
41 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
42 - A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
43 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
44 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
45 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
46 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
47 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
48 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
49 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
50 - When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting State as a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes:
51 - One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
52 - An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
53 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
54 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
55 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
56 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
57 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter. The command of the situation is the responsibility of:
58 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
59 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
60 - What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors?
61 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
62 - When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
63 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
64 - Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: a special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
65 - According to PART-FCL, class ratings shall be established for single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
66 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
67 - ATIS broadcast
68 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft:
69 - The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
70 - Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
71 - The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
72 - How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
73 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
74 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
75 - Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
76 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
77 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
78 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
79 - The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
80 - Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500' margin above the following two levels:
81 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
82 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
83 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
84 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
85 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
86 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
87 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
88 - Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
89 - Medical examination is normally limited to those people arriving from an area infected with which of the following quarantinable diseases?
90 - Interception. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A
91 - What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
92 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
93 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
94 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
95 - AIP: Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
96 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
97 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
98 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
99 - The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
100 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
101 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
102 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
103 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
104 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
105 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
106 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
107 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
108 - How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircraft subjected to unlawful interference to be not less than?
109 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for:
110 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
111 - Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
112 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
113 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
114 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
115 - In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
116 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
117 - SSR special codes. ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
118 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
119 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
120 - For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:
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