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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
2 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
3 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
4 - Runway threshold lights shall be:
5 - For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:
6 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
7 - AIP. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
8 - If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
9 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
10 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
11 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
12 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
13 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
14 - The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
15 - What is meant when departure control instruct you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?
16 - What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors?
17 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
18 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
19 - A strayed aircraft is:
20 - In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
21 - The loading limitations shall include:
22 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
23 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
24 - The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
25 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
26 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
27 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
28 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
29 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
30 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
31 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
32 - Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
33 - The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
34 - Communications Failure - Flight Procedures. You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: 'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
35 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
36 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
37 - Which 'code letter' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
38 - According to PART-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes is 1 year. For an initial issue, this validity is calculated from the date:
39 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
40 - What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
41 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
42 - Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
43 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
44 - The second freedom of the air is the:
45 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
46 - According to PART-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an FI(A) rating to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A) are restricted to:
47 - Holding Procedures - Entry. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
48 - Which of the following is binding for ICAO Contracting States?
49 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
50 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
51 - Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
52 - What is a 'barrette'?
53 - Which statement is correct? during a 'Visual Approach' in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
54 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
55 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command, including a cross-country flight totalling not less than........ km (-NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred to are:
56 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
57 - The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
58 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
59 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
60 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
61 - What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
62 - Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
63 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
64 - Which statement correctly describes mandatory instruction signs at an aerodrome?
65 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
66 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
67 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
68 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
69 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft:
70 - Aircraft 'A' with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft 'B' with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
71 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
72 - In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
73 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
74 - The validity of the instrument rating (IR) is:
75 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
76 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
77 - What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
78 - Aerodrome traffic is:
79 - While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
80 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
81 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
82 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
83 - How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircraft subjected to unlawful interference to be not less than?
84 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
85 - 'Cabotage' refers to:
86 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
87 - Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
88 - The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
89 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
90 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
91 - Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
92 - Approach Procedures - Circling. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
93 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
94 - The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
95 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
96 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
97 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
98 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
99 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
100 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
101 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
102 - Approach procedures - missed approach climb. Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
103 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "AFIRMATIVE" is (search and rescue signals):
104 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
105 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
106 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
107 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:
108 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
109 - Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
110 - Search and Rescue. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
111 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
112 - Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
113 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
114 - Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
115 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
116 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
117 - According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
118 - Which code shall be used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
119 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
120 - Altimeter setting (change during climb). On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:
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