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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
2 - Altimeter setting procedures - Definitions The Transition Level:
3 - During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
4 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
5 - Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
6 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
7 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
8 - While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
9 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
10 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
11 - Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
12 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for:
13 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
14 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
15 - In the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the code element 2 shall identify:
16 - What is meant when departure control instruct you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?
17 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
18 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
19 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
20 - The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
21 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
22 - The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
23 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
24 - The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
25 - Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
26 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
27 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
28 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
29 - While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
30 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
31 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
32 - According to PART-FCL, class ratings shall be established for single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
33 - Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures:
34 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
35 - For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
36 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
37 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
38 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
39 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
40 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
41 - According to PART-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes is 1 year. For an initial issue, this validity is calculated from the date:
42 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
43 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
44 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
45 - One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
46 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
47 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
48 - Avoidance of collisions. The highest priority for landing has:
49 - Type ratings shall be established
50 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
51 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
52 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
53 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
54 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
55 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
56 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
57 - Abbreviations. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
58 - Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
59 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
60 - A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
61 - The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
62 - An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
63 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude. The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
64 - In the ground-air emergency code the symbol "X" means:
65 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
66 - When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a Mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
67 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
68 - Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
69 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
70 - Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
71 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
72 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
73 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
74 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
75 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
76 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
77 - In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
78 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
79 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
80 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
81 - According to PART-FCL, successful completion of a multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course shall be required to:
82 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
83 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
84 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
85 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
86 - The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
87 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
88 - Holding procedures (entry). You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
89 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
90 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
91 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
92 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
93 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
94 - Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is:
95 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
96 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
97 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
98 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
99 - Search and Rescue. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
100 - According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic:
101 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
102 - The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
103 - If unidentified baggage is found at an airport:
104 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
105 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
106 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
107 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
108 - The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in_____ aeroplane shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrument rules and an engine _________.
109 - Aircraft 'A' with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft 'B' with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
110 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
111 - Abbreviations. In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
112 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
113 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
114 - What does the signal "N" mean?
115 - Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
116 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc 4444)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
117 - What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors?
118 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
119 - Approach Procedures - Circling. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
120 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
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