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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
2 - The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
3 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
4 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:
5 - Circling approach. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
6 - A 'RNAV' distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' way-point. This minimum is:
7 - VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are:
8 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
9 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
10 - OCA: An OCA is referenced to:
11 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be
12 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
13 - Visual Flight Rules. Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class 'G' in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
14 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
15 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
16 - What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
17 - Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
18 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
19 - The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
20 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
21 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
22 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
23 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
24 - Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
25 - A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
26 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
27 - The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
28 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
29 - An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
30 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
31 - Which signal indicates "Operations complete"?
32 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
33 - Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
34 - The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in_____ aeroplane shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrument rules and an engine _________.
35 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
36 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
37 - The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
38 - The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
39 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
40 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
41 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
42 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall:
43 - Search and Rescue. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
44 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
45 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
46 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
47 - Which 'code letter' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
48 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
49 - Which statement is correct?
50 - According to PART-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:
51 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
52 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
53 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
54 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
55 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
56 - You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
57 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
58 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
59 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
60 - An AIRAC is:
61 - Approach procedures - missed approach climb. Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
62 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
63 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
64 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
65 - In the ground-air emergency code the symbol "X" means:
66 - In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
67 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
68 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
69 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
70 - The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
71 - Holding Procedures - Entry. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
72 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
73 - A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
74 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
75 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
76 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
77 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
78 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
79 - If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
80 - A rescue unit is:
81 - According to PART-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an FI(A) rating to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A) are restricted to:
82 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
83 - The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
84 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
85 - During radar-control, a 'radar-controller' shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 'tower-controller' has not issued a 'landing-clearance' at the moment the aircraft is:
86 - According to PART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
87 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
88 - Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
89 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
90 - Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
91 - Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
92 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
93 - An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
94 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
95 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
96 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar?
97 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
98 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
99 - General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
100 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
101 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
102 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
103 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS. The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
104 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft:
105 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
106 - The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
107 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
108 - The loading limitations shall include:
109 - Runway threshold lights shall be:
110 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
111 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
112 - Visual Flight Rules. An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
113 - What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
114 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
115 - When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a Mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
116 - A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
117 - Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
118 - Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
119 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
120 - Departure procedure - Design. The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
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