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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
2 - The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
3 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
4 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
5 - Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
6 - Given:AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500' margin above the following two levels:
7 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
8 - Visual Flight RulesAn aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least
9 - According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
10 - An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
11 - A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
12 - The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanesshall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrument rules and an engine _________.
13 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
14 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
15 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
16 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
17 - The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
18 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
19 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
20 - According toPART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
21 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
22 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
23 - Altimeter setting (change during climb)On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:
24 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
25 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
26 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
27 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
28 - Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
29 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
30 - The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
31 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
32 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
33 - A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
34 - OCAAn OCA is referenced to:
35 - Holding Procedures - EntryRelated to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
36 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
37 - A system providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is known as:
38 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
39 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearanceWhen does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
40 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
41 - For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following?
42 - Arrival and Approach segments, GeneralWhat are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
43 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
44 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
45 - The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination.
46 - Aerodrome traffic is:
47 - When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
48 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
49 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
50 - General provisions - amended clearanceIf an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
51 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
52 - The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
53 - High intensity obstacle lights should be:
54 - Accident investigationWho is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
55 - VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are:
56 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
57 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
58 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
59 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
60 - An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
61 - The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
62 - SSR - Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
63 - The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
64 - Communications Failure - Flight ProceduresYou are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route.At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'.At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
65 - The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
66 - Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
67 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
68 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMCWhich procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
69 - Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
70 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILSThe ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
71 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
72 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
73 - The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
74 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is:
75 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
76 - While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
77 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
78 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
79 - The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
80 - 'Code letter D' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
81 - Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
82 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
83 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
84 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
85 - A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
86 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
87 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
88 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
89 - The loading limitations shall include:
90 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
91 - Search and RescueThe unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the:
92 - Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
93 - The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
94 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
95 - Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
96 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
97 - For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:
98 - Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
99 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
100 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
101 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
102 - Holding procedures (entry)You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°.You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
103 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
104 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
105 - When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
106 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
107 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
108 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
109 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
110 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
111 - Holding procedures (outbound time)The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
112 - While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
113 - According with the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the 'Code number 4' shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
114 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
115 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
116 - According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
117 - Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
118 - The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
119 - The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
120 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
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