Test 120 exam questions on Air Law for ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

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1 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 3% 5% 10 % 2%

2 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: Unless the written permission of the Authority and the operator is obtained. At all. Unless they are unloaded and made safe. Unless the commander agrees.

3 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing red. Flashing yellow. Fixed orange. Fixed red.

4 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold These adjustments shall never be more than: 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold 25 knots at any stage 15 knots at any stage

5 - The ground-air signal "NN" means: We have found all personnel. We are not able to continue returning to base. Operation completed. Nothing found will continue the search.

6 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition AltitudeThe transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: 2500 ft. 3000 ft. 1000 ft. 1500 ft.

7 - VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are: 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds No minima, VFR flights are not permitted 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds

8 - If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway Until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

9 - Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: F and G only A, B, C, D, E, F and G C, D, E, F, and G F only

10 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of: The Hague Warsaw Chicago Montreal

11 - Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion Need to file a flight plan Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified

12 - A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

13 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: Control zone. Control area. Flight information region. Advisory airspace.

14 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified Airspace G Airspace E Airspace F Airspace D

15 - A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: No more than 15 days Not more than one month Not more than 10 days Not more than 28 days

16 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation: At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

17 - The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT TAS 250 KT IAS 240 KT IAS Not applicable

18 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: The Warsaw Convention The Rome Convention The Tokyo Convention The Paris Convention

19 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? 900 metres 1200 metres 1000 metres 420 metres

20 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Fixed lights showing green. Fixed lights showing white.

21 - You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL With a PPL plus CPL theory With a PPL plus flight instructor rating With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating With a CPL

22 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: Operational air traffic control centres Search and rescue co-ordination centres Air traffic co-ordination services Flight information or control organisations

23 - What is meant when departure control instruct you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway? Advisories will no longer be issued by AT Radar Service is terminated. Radar Service is terminated. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

24 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft: With the commander's permission, unloaded in an overhead locker. But not if it is a public transport flight. With the operator's permission, the commander's knowledge, unloaded and in a place where the passengers have no access. With the operator's permission.

25 - When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights The Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion Shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence

26 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Montreal Convention. Hague Convention. Warsaw Convention. Tokyo Convention.

27 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: At the discretion of the air traffic controller If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight

28 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is: 5 KT 4 KT 3 KT 2 KT

29 - According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: Laws of the State in which is operated Laws of the State of registry Requirements laid down by ICAO Laws of the State of registry and operation

30 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m up to but not including 65 m. 15 m up to but not including 24 m. 24 m up to but not including 36 m. 36 m up to but not including 52 m.

31 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify? Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

32 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: Annex 11 Annex 2 Annex 12 Annex 1

33 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL and clear of clouds 8 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

34 - The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

35 - The Alerting Service is provided by: The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. Only by ATC units. The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121,5 MHz. The Area Control Centres.

36 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: Always of a straight row of lights towards the runway Of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway Of an arbitrary amount of green lights

37 - he VMC minima for an airspace classified an: Mandatory instruction signs red background with black inscriptions. Information signs yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. Mandatory instruction signs information signs black background with red inscriptions. Information signs orange background with black inscriptions.

38 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must stop. May continue to taxi towards the take-off area. Is cleared for take-off. Must return to its point of departure.

39 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals): N Y V X

40 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for: 60 months under the age of 50 60 months under the age of 40 24 months under the age of 50 24 months under the age of 40

41 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 2 minutes. 10 minutes.

42 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is: Annex 8 Annex 6 Annex 9 Annex 15

43 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: The state of registry only The International Civil Aviation Organisation The state of registry or common mark registering authority The International Telecommunication Union

44 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is 21 and 59 years 18 and 60 years 17 and 59 years 16 and 60 years

45 - Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue. Flashing showing blue. Fixed showing yellow. Fixed showing green.

46 - When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and repair at departure airport is impossible, then: Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed You are not allowed to commence the flight The flight can only continue in the most direct manner

47 - AuthorityThe final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is the: ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace Pilot-in-command Operator Aircraft owner

48 - AbbreviationsIn Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168) Distance error in routing. Departure end of runway. Displaced end of runway. Direct entry route.

49 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' - for 3 'L', 'C' and 'R'. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' and the central has no letter. By a letter for 2 parallel runways. By a number like '0' and '01' for 2 parallel runways.

50 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is: 5 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 1 minute

51 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at twodifferent aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) 15 hours and 540 km (300 NM) 20 hours and 540 km (300 NM) 20 hours and 270 km (150 NM)

52 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be 10 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes

53 - One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: 30° immediately after take-off. 45° immediately after take-off. 25° immediately after take-off. 15° immediately after take-off.

54 - Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: The Chicago Convention The Rome Convention The Montreal Convention The Warsaw Convention

55 - Which 'code letter' shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? Code letter 'D' Code letter 'F' Code letter 'E' Code letter 'C'

56 - General provisions - amended clearanceIf an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with AT The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request. The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request. The PIC may request an amended clearance from the AT Amended clearances will only be given when VMC prevails. The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

57 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference Binding for all air line companies with international traffic Binding for all member states

58 - The second freedom of the air is the: Right to land for a technical stop Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Right to 'cabotage' traffic, (trans-border traffic). Right to overfly without landing

59 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. Precision approach runways category I, II and III. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Precision approach runways in general.

60 - Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights showing green or white colours. Fixed lights green colours.

61 - Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller

62 - If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 1 6) of a flight plan form... Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport. Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport. Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport

63 - The validity of the instrument rating (IR) is: 5 years 6 months 2 years 1 year

64 - An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? 3rd freedom 1st freedom 4th freedom 2nd freedom

65 - What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft 6 NM 10 km 2 km 3 NM

66 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

67 - Holding procedures (outbound time)The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: 2 minutes. 1 minute. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.

68 - Approach procedures - missed approach climbNormally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: 2.5% 3.3% 5% 2%

69 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: Cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms Cargo and is covered by a traffic document Cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment Accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo

70 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle ClearanceThe minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 3.3 % gradient. 35 ft. 0 ft. 0.8 % gradient.

71 - AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? AD ENR MET GEN

72 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures? GEN ENR MAP AD

73 - The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: Red for food and water. Yellow for blankets and protective clothing. Black for food and water. Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

74 - The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

75 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

76 - What colour streamer would identify cooking equipment dropped to survivors? Black Yellow Blue Red

77 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 11 Annex 6

78 - Circling approachOne of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight. The required visual references have been established and can be maintained. The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher. The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

79 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.

80 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are: 1500 m horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 2000 metres horizontally, 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 1 mile horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 5 km visibility

81 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must: Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible. Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter 'R' using his navigational lights.

82 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: AIRA Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). NOTAM. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

83 - For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as: Boarding after to all other passengers The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion Boarding prior to all passengers The boarding has to be done at the state discretion

84 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Intermediate approach segment. Initial approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment.

85 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: Use the word ROGER Use the word WILCO Read back the mode and code to be set Read back the code to be set and SQUAWK IDENT

86 - Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

87 - The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 2 NM from the threshold on final approach. 5 NM from the threshold on final approach. 3 NM from the threshold on final approach. 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.

88 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMCWhich procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ET Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit. Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure. Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.

89 - When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: 12 months to 3 months 12 months to 6 months None of the answers are correct 24 months to 12 months

90 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: At least 50 centimetres At least 75 centimetres At least 60 centimetres At least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres

91 - Holding Procedures - Buffer AreaHow far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 5 NM. 3 km. 5 km. 3 NM.

92 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisation FI(A) and IRI(A). FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.

93 - Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): Its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation. It has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular. It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services. Its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

94 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of: 4 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown 3 NM from the touchdown 2 NM from the touchdown

95 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within: 2NM 3NM 1NM 5NM

96 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below: Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody None of the answers is correct Deportees and inadmissible persons only Deportees and persons in lawful custody only

97 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'? ENR AD GEN LOC

98 - Approach procedures - final approach segmentIn a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from: 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

99 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

100 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example LLL RCC DDD PAN

101 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

102 - The loading limitations shall include: All limiting mass and centres of gravity All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

103 - How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircraft subjected to unlawful interference to be not less than? 100 m 300 m 200 m 50 m

104 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10000') AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000') AMSL and clear of clouds 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10000') AMSL, clear of clouds 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000') AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

105 - InterceptionIf any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall: Ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate ATS unit. Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification. Select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received instructions from the appropriate ATS unit. Ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.

106 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: Only NOTAMs and Circulars. Only AIP and NOTAMs. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package. AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRA

107 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: 1, 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 1 and 2 Class 1 only.

108 - Which statement is correct? The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL

109 - Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures: Intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. Intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation. And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference.

110 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? 35 metres 40 metres 45 metres 50 metres

111 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

112 - Altimeter setting (change during climb)On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: Transition altitude. Level specified by A Transition level. Transition layer.

113 - 'Clearway' is defined rectangular area established to: Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

114 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: At every ATS facility. At every international airport. If they are adjacent to the sea. In each search and rescue region.

115 - Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements By regional air navigation agreements By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

116 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Index. Precision Approach Power Index. Precision Approach Power Indicator. Precision Approach Path Indicator.

117 - Approach procedures - MDH / OCHFor a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: 350 ft 200 ft 400 ft The Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)

118 - An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is A NOTAM A SIGMET information An En-Route Meteo Report An AIRMET information

119 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: 3 NM from touchdown. 2,5 NM from touchdown. 2 NM from touchdown. 1 NM from touchdown.

120 - Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

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