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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc 4444)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
2 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
3 - Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
4 - Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
5 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
6 - Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
7 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
8 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
9 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
10 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
11 - An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
12 - 'Clearway' is defined rectangular area established to:
13 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
14 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
15 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
16 - The First Freedom of the Air is:
17 - The applicant to exercise the privileges of an Instrument Rating in a _____ aeroplane shall prove, according to ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing), the ability to pilot such aircraft solely by reference to instruments with one engine _________.
18 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
19 - According to Part-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
20 - The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
21 - According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
22 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
23 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
24 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
25 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
26 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
27 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
28 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
29 - According to PART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
30 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):
31 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the 'Code number 4' shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
32 - General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
33 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
34 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
35 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
36 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
37 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
38 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
39 - Which statement is correct? during a 'Visual Approach' in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
40 - Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
41 - Approach procedures - MDH / OCH For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
42 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
43 - Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures:
44 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
45 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
46 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
47 - Contracting States shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
48 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
49 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS. The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
50 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
51 - Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
52 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
53 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
54 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
55 - ATIS broadcast
56 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
57 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
58 - The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
59 - Authority. The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is the:
60 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segments. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
61 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
62 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
63 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
64 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
65 - The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
66 - Holding Procedures - Buffer Area. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
67 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
68 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
69 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
70 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
71 - The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
72 - When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation
73 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
74 - Which of the following is binding for ICAO Contracting States?
75 - What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
76 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
77 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
78 - The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination.
79 - Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
80 - For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following?
81 - AIP. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
82 - Arrival and Approach segments, General. What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
83 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
84 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
85 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
86 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
87 - A so called 'Visual Approach' can be performed:
88 - When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
89 - The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
90 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
91 - Air Traffic Service unit means:
92 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
93 - Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
94 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
95 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
96 - A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
97 - SSR special codes. ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
98 - A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is:
99 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
100 - While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
101 - Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
102 - Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall:
103 - The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
104 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
105 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
106 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
107 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
108 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
109 - According to PART-FCL (and OSD data), the establishment of a separate type rating for aeroplanes is assessed based on criteria including whether the aeroplane has:
110 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:
111 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
112 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
113 - Holding Procedures - Entry. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
114 - VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are:
115 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
116 - Approach Procedures - Circling. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
117 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
118 - Avoidance of collisions. The highest priority for landing has:
119 - What does the signal "N" mean?
120 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
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