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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
2 - Air Traffic Service unit means:
3 - The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
4 - In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?
5 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
6 - Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
7 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
8 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
9 - Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
10 - A rescue unit is:
11 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than...... hours, either as pilot-in-command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated hours are respectively:
12 - Approach Procedures - Circling. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
13 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
14 - For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following?
15 - According to PART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
16 - When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
17 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
18 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
19 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
20 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
21 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) shall have completed not less than........ hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command, including a cross-country flight totalling not less than........ km (-NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred to are:
22 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
23 - A system providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is known as:
24 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
25 - An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR Mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
26 - According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
27 - Visual Flight Rules. Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class 'G' in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
28 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
29 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
30 - How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
31 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
32 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
33 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
34 - Which signal indicates "Operations complete"?
35 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
36 - Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall:
37 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
38 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance. The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
39 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
40 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:
41 - Search and Rescue. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is:
42 - Visual Flight Rules: Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the:
43 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
44 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
45 - Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
46 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
47 - In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
48 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
49 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
50 - The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each
51 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
52 - Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
53 - Runway end lights shall be:
54 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
55 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
56 - A so called 'Visual Approach' can be performed:
57 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
58 - The radar controller suspects that you are experiencing unlawful interference. What should he do to confirm this with an auto decoder unit? (with no mode A interpretation?)
59 - The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
60 - What is a 'barrette'?
61 - Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
62 - The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law
63 - The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
64 - The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
65 - The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:
66 - Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
67 - Temporary long-term modifications (3 months or more), and short-term information that is extensive or graphical, are published as:
68 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
69 - Search and Rescue. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the:
70 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
71 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
72 - Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
73 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
74 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
75 - To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
76 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
77 - A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
78 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
79 - What is required if security personnel on board are to be armed?
80 - In the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the code element 2 shall identify:
81 - AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
82 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals):
83 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure and decide to continue to fly in VMC. In accordance with the Standardised European Rules of the Air, you will:
84 - What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
85 - While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
86 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
87 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
88 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "AFIRMATIVE" is (search and rescue signals):
89 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
90 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
91 - During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
92 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
93 - Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
94 - General provisions - amended clearance. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
95 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
96 - Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
97 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
98 - Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
99 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
100 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
101 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
102 - A 'RNAV' distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' way-point. This minimum is:
103 - You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
104 - Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a Contracting State and has to stay in that Contracting State until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the Contracting State where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
105 - When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
106 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
107 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
108 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
109 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
110 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
111 - AIP: Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
112 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
113 - The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
114 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
115 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
116 - A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
117 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
118 - When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
119 - The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than...... hours shall be as pilot-in-command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated hours are respectively:
120 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
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