Skip to content

Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
2 - To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
3 - An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
4 - The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
5 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
6 - Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft:
7 - Accident investigation. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
8 - OCA: An OCA is referenced to:
9 - Runway threshold lights shall be:
10 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
11 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
12 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
13 - Alert phase is defined as follows:
14 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
15 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
16 - The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
17 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
18 - During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
19 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
20 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
21 - Altimeter setting (change during climb). On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the:
22 - Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-in. A so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
23 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
24 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
25 - The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
26 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
27 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
28 - Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
29 - The ground-air signal "NN" means:
30 - Type ratings shall be established
31 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
32 - A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
33 - The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
34 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
35 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
36 - The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
37 - Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
38 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
39 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
40 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
41 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
42 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
43 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
44 - Which statement correctly describes mandatory instruction signs at an aerodrome?
45 - Which code shall be used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
46 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
47 - When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft you shall:
48 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
49 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
50 - Visual Flight Rules. Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class 'G' in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
51 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
52 - A strayed aircraft is:
53 - According to PART-FCL (and OSD data), the establishment of a separate type rating for aeroplanes is assessed based on criteria including whether the aeroplane has:
54 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
55 - Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
56 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
57 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
58 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
59 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
60 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
61 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance. The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
62 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
63 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
64 - When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
65 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
66 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
67 - When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of
68 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
69 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
70 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
71 - The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination.
72 - Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
73 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
74 - A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
75 - Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
76 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
77 - In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
78 - General provisions - amended clearance. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
79 - Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
80 - Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE' is:
81 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
82 - A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
83 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
84 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors?
85 - When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
86 - Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
87 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
88 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
89 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
90 - A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
91 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
92 - Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
93 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
94 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
95 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
96 - You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
97 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
98 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
99 - General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
100 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
101 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
102 - The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (search and rescue signals):
103 - A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
104 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
105 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for:
106 - Holding procedures (entry). You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
107 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
108 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
109 - What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
110 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
111 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
112 - The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
113 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
114 - For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
115 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
116 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
117 - Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
118 - In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
119 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
120 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for: