Test 120 exam questions on Air Law for ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

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1 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is: 3000' 2000' 1500' 4000'

2 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. Give way to another aircraft. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.

3 - When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft The persons not subjected to security control shall be identified Only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened Only the passengers are to be re screened

4 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / levelIn the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of: Flight level at or below the transition level Altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude Flight level at or below the transition altitude Altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude

5 - An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

6 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas? GEN AD ENR The AIP does not contain this information

7 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 2 minutes. 10 minutes.

8 - In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

9 - An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.

10 - Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and: On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days On at least 20 occasions On at least 20 days consecutively

11 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

12 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

13 - The pilot in command of an aircraft 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the 'pilot flying'. 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 3 - 4 - 5 3 - 5 2 - 3 - 5 1 - 4

14 - According toPART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: More than 12 hours Any period More than one week More than 12 days

15 - Separation - VMC and own separationThe 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft.The conditions are: Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight Airspace Class C, D and E, VMC Airspace Class C, D, VMC Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight

16 - According to PART-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: Not more than three years The period of validity of the medical certificate. The period of validity of the class/type rating. Not more than two years

17 - A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

18 - A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that: An area unit for the movement of aircraft. Need special precautions while approaching for landing. Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

19 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. Six months or longer Three months or longer Two months or longer One year or longer

20 - SSR - Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: Use the word ROGER Use the word WILCO Read back the mode and code to be set Read back the code to be set and SQUAWK IDENT

21 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference Binding for all air line companies with international traffic Binding for all member states

22 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below: Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody None of the answers is correct Deportees and inadmissible persons only Deportees and persons in lawful custody only

23 - Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between IFR flights Achieving separation between controlled flights Providing advisory service Providing flight Information Service

24 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 3% 5% 10 % 2%

25 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: Airspace B Airspace D Airspace A Airspace E

26 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions As instructed by an air traffic control unit On the initiative of the aircraft commander When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

27 - In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation: Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL. Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. Is only considered for PPL.

28 - The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is YELLOW RED ORANGE GREEN

29 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearanceWhen does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain? Always when ATS are provided. When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar. ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IM ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.

30 - The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: At least 50 centimetres At least 75 centimetres At least 60 centimetres At least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres

31 - The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of: 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

32 - How far from other parking areas or installations is the parking area designated for aircraft subjected to unlawful interference to be not less than? 100 m 300 m 200 m 50 m

33 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively: 250 hours and 70 hours 150 hours and 75 hours 200 hours and 100 hours 200 hours and 75 hours

34 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is: Annex 8 Annex 9 Annex 16 Annex 15

35 - Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle ClearanceThe minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 3.3 % gradient. 35 ft. 0 ft. 0.8 % gradient.

36 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: Montreal Convention. Hague Convention. Warsaw Convention. Tokyo Convention.

37 - When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO Two aforementioned States and the ICAO Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO

38 - The ground-air signal "NN" means: We have found all personnel. We are not able to continue returning to base. Operation completed. Nothing found will continue the search.

39 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: 5E. 6 4F. 4F. 2

40 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of: Type-written only. Hand-written in block capitals and in ink. Type-written and electronic form only. Electronic form only.

41 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

42 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C. O.) was established by the international convention of: The Hague Warsaw O.) was established by the international convention of: The Hague Warsaw Chicago Montreal

43 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of: 5 NM from the touchdown 4 NM from the touchdown 1.5 NM from the touchdown 2 NM from the touchdown

44 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMCWhich procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ET Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit. Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure. Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.

45 - Avoidance of collisionsThe highest priority for landing has: An aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing). An Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention. An aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state). A military aircraft.

46 - The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be: Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. Green colour identification given by Morse Code. White colour identification given by Morse Code. White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.

47 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight DeparturesA straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: 30°. 45°. 15°. 12.5°.

48 - Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory services Providing flight Information Service Providing alerting services Achieving separation between controlled flights

49 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon: Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft

50 - Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: At every ATS facility. At every international airport. If they are adjacent to the sea. In each search and rescue region.

51 - When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights The Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion Shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence

52 - What is a 'barrette'? A high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway. Three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. A frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. A CAT II or III holding position.

53 - Search and Rescue signalsThe ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE' is: V X Y N

54 - An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

55 - According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic: In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south. When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP Before landing and take-off

56 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions The approach must be passing the FAF Continued approach will be according to VFR The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

57 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: 15 minutes or more 5 minutes or more. 20 minutes 10 minutes

58 - According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to: Obtain a professional pilot licence Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes Revalidate any rating or licence Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes

59 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: Is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state Shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility And the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible Shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

60 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. One year Five years after licence issue. Two years

61 - A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: No more than 15 days Not more than one month Not more than 10 days Not more than 28 days

62 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? GEN SAR AD ENR

63 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command

64 - In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? Medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes Light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

65 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only Glider flying is performed outside the landing area This aerodrome is using parallel runways Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways

66 - Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

67 - A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, Until their journey can be continued If is requested by an individual passenger And arrange for them to return to their country of origin During a period of investigation

68 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Intermediate approach segment. Initial approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment.

69 - The (operator) proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed: 31st of December the same year 30th of April the following year 30th of October the same year 15th of October the same year

70 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

71 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is: 5 KT 8 KT 10 KT 4 KT

72 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: 250 KT IAS 250 KT TAS Not applicable 240 KT IAS

73 - What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? ± 15 KT ± 20KT ± 25 KT ± 10KT

74 - In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? 3 minutes 4 minutes 2 minutes 1 minute

75 - Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correctionFlying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to: Request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength. Ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track. Correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. Request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.

76 - The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is: 250 KT IAS Not applicable 260 KT IAS 250 KT TAS

77 - The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): +/- 200 ft. +/- 150 ft. +/- 300 ft. +/- 250 ft.

78 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in: Have to be as indicated by ICAO council Has to be the same as the underlying flight information region Have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings Need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

79 - The second freedom of the air is the: Right to land for a technical stop Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Right to 'cabotage' traffic, (trans-border traffic). Right to overfly without landing

80 - Given:AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500' margin above the following two levels: FL30 or 100' AGL 3000' AMSL or 1500' AGL FL30 or 1500' AGL 3000' AMSL or 1000' AGL

81 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: 300 m. 250 m. 200 m. 150 m.

82 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Index. Precision Approach Power Index. Precision Approach Power Indicator. Precision Approach Path Indicator.

83 - Visual Flight RulesAn aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least A distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. A distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.

84 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

85 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 8 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.

86 - The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is: 21 90 60 30

87 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis Plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis Plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis Plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

88 - Holding procedures (outbound time)The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: 2 minutes. 1 minute. 2 minutes 30 seconds. 1 minute 30 seconds.

89 - Type ratings shall be established Only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority All the answers are correct Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter

90 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. Of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day. Required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. Required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).

91 - Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. Must land immediately and clear the landing area. Must give way to another aircraft. Is cleared to land.

92 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Crossing arms extended above his head Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist

93 - What colour streamer identifies medical supplies dropped to survivors? Yellow Blue Black Red

94 - High intensity obstacle lights should be: Fixed orange. Flashing white. Fixed red. Flashing red.

95 - Search and RescueThe colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid equipment is Red Yellow Black Blue

96 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: NOTAM, AIP and MAL. Only in AIP. Only in NOTAM. In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.

97 - The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: Operator's licence for international scheduled aviation The regulation of transportation of dangerous goods The security system at airports Limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported

98 - In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar? 3. 5. 4. 2.

99 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case: The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

100 - When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of Air traffic control and flight information centres. Air traffic coordination centres. Control centres only. Search and rescue coordination centres.

101 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than: 25 degrees 30 degrees 15 degrees 20 degrees

102 - Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

103 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case: It is a deviation from the track. The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan. Of an emergency.

104 - For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: Will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach. Will land. Will arrive overhead the initial approach fix. Will stop on the parking area.

105 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure. This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a report. Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company. This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 h. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

106 - Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights Switching on and off four times the navigation lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights Switching on and off three times the landing lights

107 - Approach Procedures - CirclingIt is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway. Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. Permits circling only in VM

108 - SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code 7500. 7000. 7600. 7700.

109 - Each Contracting State shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken. These measures are of the discretion of the Contracting State. The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. Correct. The above question statement is incomplete. The pilot-in-command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.

110 - Approach procedures - CirclingThe visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around: Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact. Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach. Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions. If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground contact.

111 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'? ENR AD GEN LOC

112 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of: 52 m up to but not including 65 m. 15 m up to but not including 24 m. 24 m up to but not including 36 m. 36 m up to but not including 52 m.

113 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: NOTAM PANS AIRAC IFPS

114 - The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: The licence is issued or validated The medical assessment is issued The licence is delivered to the pilot The licence is issued or renewed

115 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: Above the approach slope. On or close to the approach slope. Only on the approach slope. Below the approach slope.

116 - OCAAn OCA is referenced to: The Aerodrome Reference Point The relevant Runway Threshold Mean Sea Level An Aerodrome Elevation

117 - According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date: Of the skill test The application is received by the Authority. Of issue Of the last medical certificate

118 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: 3 NM from touchdown. 2,5 NM from touchdown. 2 NM from touchdown. 1 NM from touchdown.

119 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.

120 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

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Exam simulation Air Law ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation atpl 120 questions on 120 minutes