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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The loading limitations shall include:
2 - The First Freedom of the Air is:
3 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
4 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
5 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
6 - In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
7 - The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are:
8 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
9 - Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
10 - Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
11 - Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
12 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
13 - Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
14 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
15 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
16 - When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and repair at departure airport is impossible, then:
17 - Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall:
18 - Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:
19 - The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
20 - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must:
21 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
22 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
23 - Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
24 - The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
25 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
26 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
27 - A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
28 - Visual Flight Rules: Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the:
29 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
30 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the 'Code number 4' shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:
31 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
32 - A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft:
33 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
34 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
35 - Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
36 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
37 - The validity of the instrument rating (IR) is:
38 - In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
39 - When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
40 - Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
41 - The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
42 - The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
43 - Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS. The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than:
44 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
45 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
46 - The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
47 - An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
48 - For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
49 - The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
50 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
51 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
52 - What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
53 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
54 - The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
55 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
56 - When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft you shall:
57 - The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
58 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
59 - According to Part-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating:
60 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
61 - A 'RNAV' distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same 'on track' way-point. This minimum is:
62 - Approach procedures - final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
63 - Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
64 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
65 - Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar- control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
66 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
67 - The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:
68 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
69 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
70 - The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
71 - According to PART-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes is 1 year. For an initial issue, this validity is calculated from the date:
72 - The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
73 - The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
74 - An AIRAC is:
75 - Holding procedures (entry). You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure:
76 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter. The command of the situation is the responsibility of:
77 - A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
78 - Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
79 - Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
80 - Interception. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
81 - According to PART-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
82 - The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
83 - An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
84 - OCA: An OCA is referenced to:
85 - Which does ATC Term 'Radar contact' signify?
86 - A rescue unit is:
87 - Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
88 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
89 - The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
90 - General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
91 - Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
92 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
93 - The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
94 - Which statement correctly describes mandatory instruction signs at an aerodrome?
95 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
96 - Circling approach. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
97 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
98 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
99 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
100 - Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal.
101 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
102 - During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
103 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
104 - Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual code for: 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE' is:
105 - SSR - Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
106 - You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
107 - The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
108 - When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
109 - Approach Procedures - Circling. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
110 - Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
111 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
112 - Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
113 - Abbreviations. In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
114 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
115 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
116 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
117 - Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a Contracting State and has to stay in that Contracting State until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the Contracting State where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
118 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude. The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
119 - Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
120 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
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