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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
2 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
3 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
4 - What is meant when departure control instruct you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to an airway?
5 - A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
6 - In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
7 - Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall:
8 - The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
9 - For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:
10 - At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
11 - The applicant to exercise the privileges of an Instrument Rating in a _____ aeroplane shall prove, according to ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing), the ability to pilot such aircraft solely by reference to instruments with one engine _________.
12 - The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
13 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
14 - Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
15 - The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is:
16 - Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a Contracting State and has to stay in that Contracting State until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the Contracting State where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
17 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified
18 - According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
19 - Departure procedure - Design. The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
20 - Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
21 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for:
22 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
23 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
24 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is:
25 - Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
26 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
27 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
28 - The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
29 - The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
30 - The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
31 - Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
32 - The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
33 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
34 - The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
35 - In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
36 - One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
37 - According to PART-FCL, successful completion of a multi-crew cooperation (MCC) training course shall be required to:
38 - Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
39 - Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
40 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
41 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
42 - Separation - VMC and own separation. The 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
43 - When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation
44 - An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
45 - SSR - Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
46 - In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
47 - Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segments. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
48 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
49 - Three aircraft, ( 1), ( 2) and ( 3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident. Aircraft ( 1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre. Aircraft ( 3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter. The command of the situation is the responsibility of:
50 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
51 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
52 - Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
53 - An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
54 - In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
55 - Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
56 - AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
57 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
58 - Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
59 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
60 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
61 - If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions
62 - An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
63 - Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
64 - Which statement is correct? during a 'Visual Approach' in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
65 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
66 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
67 - The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
68 - An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR Mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
69 - Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
70 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
71 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
72 - According to PART-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
73 - A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
74 - For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
75 - The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law
76 - When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case:
77 - Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500' margin above the following two levels:
78 - An AIRAC is:
79 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
80 - Type ratings shall be established
81 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
82 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude. The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
83 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
84 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
85 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer. When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
86 - In the ground-air emergency code the symbol "X" means:
87 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
88 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
89 - Abbreviations. In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
90 - Approach Procedures - Circling. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
91 - You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
92 - Interception, DAY or NIGHT. Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'YOU MAY PROCEED'?
93 - Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
94 - An Air Traffic Control Unit:
95 - A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
96 - Approach procedures - Circling. The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
97 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
98 - Where a 'Secondary Surveillance Radar' (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
99 - Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
100 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
101 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
102 - In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?
103 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
104 - Circling approach. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
105 - High intensity obstacle lights should be:
106 - The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
107 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
108 - The loading limitations shall include:
109 - When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
110 - Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach segment. What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
111 - An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
112 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
113 - A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
114 - The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
115 - The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
116 - Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
117 - A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
118 - The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
119 - The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
120 - When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
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