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Exam simulation Air Law - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Air Law 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - According to PART-FCL (and OSD data), the establishment of a separate type rating for aeroplanes is assessed based on criteria including whether the aeroplane has:
2 - A rescue unit is:
3 - The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
4 - An aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has to leave its assigned track or cruising level and cannot establish communication with ATS. If no applicable regional contingency procedure has been published, the pilot-in-command should:
5 - In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
6 - If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
7 - 'TODA' take-off distance available is:
8 - Taxiway edge lights shall be:
9 - ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
10 - The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
11 - The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
12 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
13 - Each Contracting State shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
14 - In relation to ATS airspace dimensions, which statement is correct?
15 - Altimeter setting procedures - Definitions The Transition Level:
16 - The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
17 - One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
18 - AIP: Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
19 - Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
20 - The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:
21 - An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
22 - Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
23 - Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
24 - Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
25 - 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
26 - Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
27 - During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
28 - An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war:
29 - To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is
30 - According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
31 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
32 - Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
33 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
34 - Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
35 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
36 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
37 - The 'Aerodrome Reference Code' is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
38 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
39 - A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
40 - While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
41 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
42 - Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level:
43 - VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are:
44 - Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
45 - SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
46 - For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
47 - Medical examination is normally limited to those people arriving from an area infected with which of the following quarantinable diseases?
48 - The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
49 - Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track:
50 - Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
51 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
52 - Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
53 - AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
54 - Aircraft 'A' with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft 'B' with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
55 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
56 - Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
57 - The applicant to exercise the privileges of an Instrument Rating in a _____ aeroplane shall prove, according to ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing), the ability to pilot such aircraft solely by reference to instruments with one engine _________.
58 - Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
59 - In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
60 - General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance. Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
61 - Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
62 - An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
63 - The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
64 - AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
65 - Which of the following is binding for ICAO Contracting States?
66 - The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
67 - The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
68 - Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
69 - Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
70 - An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
71 - An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is
72 - When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
73 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
74 - If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
75 - Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
76 - Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
77 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
78 - Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this circle?
79 - AIP: Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
80 - Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
81 - Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
82 - A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
83 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
84 - When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
85 - Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
86 - The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
87 - Interception, DAY or NIGHT. Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'YOU MAY PROCEED'?
88 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
89 - When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
90 - An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
91 - General provisions - change from IFR to VFRA change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when
92 - According to PART-MED, a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for:
93 - The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
94 - An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR Mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
95 - Communications Failure - Flight Procedures. You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: 'Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised'. At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
96 - Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
97 - The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3 050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL, is:
98 - What does the signal "N" mean?
99 - When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
100 - Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling A circling approach is:
101 - Circling approach. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
102 - A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
103 - You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
104 - Holding procedures (outbound time). The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
105 - The 'estimated total time' in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
106 - Accident investigation. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
107 - When an airline crew member, in the exercise of her/his duties, travels to another Contracting State as a passenger in order to join an aircraft, she/he must carry for identification purposes:
108 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
109 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
110 - The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
111 - The aim of aviation security is the following:
112 - A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
113 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
114 - If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
115 - Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
116 - According to PART-FCL, a professional flight crew license issued by a non-EASA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
117 - The Alerting Service is provided by:
118 - An AIRAC is:
119 - Accident, Incident notification and reporting. After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
120 - According to PART-MED, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
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