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Exam simulation Flight Planning and Monitoring - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Flight Planning and Monitoring 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - A performance class A turbojet aeroplane uses the EU basic fuel scheme without contingency-fuel variations. Taxi fuel is 600 kg. For this exercise, total trip fuel is calculated as 6 hours at 10000 kg/h. Destination alternate fuel is 10200 kg. The applicable holding fuel flow at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions is 8000 kg/h for contingency and final reserve. No additional, extra or discretionary fuel is required. What is the minimum ramp fuel?
2 - On a VFR flight, the highest obstacle within a corridor 5 NM either side of the course line has an elevation of 5900 ft AMSL. What is the minimum altitude within this corridor to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles?
3 - When completing Item 19 (P/) of the ATS flight plan, the total number of persons on board, including passengers and crew, is not yet known. What may be entered?
4 - An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155 kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 fpm to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2000' (QNH 1030 hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
5 - In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as:
6 - What is the principal fuel-planning purpose of the reduced contingency fuel (RCF) procedure using a decision point, with destination 1 and an optional refuelling destination 2?
7 - Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return. The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
8 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Figure 4.4 Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ft Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
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9 - When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in:
10 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 1860 NM GS Out 360 kt GS Home 400 kt. What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
11 - Using only the published level allocation and minimum level on the attached historical E LO 2 training chart, which listed flight level is appropriate on airway B3 from CHATILLON (CTL, 49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI (CMB, 50°14'N 003°09'E)?
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12 - In a simplified constant-condition flight-planning exercise, departure-to-destination distance is 330 NM, outbound true track is 170 degrees, wind is from 140 degrees true at 25 kt, and TAS is 125 kt on both outbound and return legs. Safe endurance after protecting the required reserves is 5 hours, with the same constant fuel flow in both directions. Use the complete wind triangle. What is the distance of the point of safe return (PSR) from departure, rounded to the nearest whole nautical mile?
13 - Assume a magnetic variation of 4 degrees East. What are the magnetic course and the distance for a flight from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E)?
14 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 h TAS: 115 kt Ground Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
15 - Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot.
16 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 13 Figure 4.3.3C Simplified Flight Planning - Trip Distances Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1600 NM headwind component 50 kt FL 330 cruise 0.78 Mach ISA +20 °C estimated landing weight 55000 kg. Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.
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17 - When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as:
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18 - A descent is planned from 7500 ft AMSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft AMSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kt and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
19 - What is the distance of a VFR flight from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)?
20 - In an ATC flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as:
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21 - At Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36'W), an aircraft's initial true course is 084°. Using a north-polar grid whose grid north is parallel to the Greenwich meridian, what is the initial grid course?
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22 - Dry operating mass is 33510 kg and traffic load is 7600 kg. Final reserve fuel is 983 kg, destination alternate fuel 1100 kg and contingency fuel 102 kg. At landing at the alternate, assume the alternate fuel has been consumed completely, while the final reserve and the entire contingency fuel remain unused. What is the estimated landing mass at the alternate?
23 - An aircraft type is not classified as SUPER (J) in ICAO Doc 8643. Its maximum certificated take-off mass is 137000 kg, but its actual take-off mass is 135000 kg. Which wake turbulence category is entered in Item 9 of the ATS flight plan?
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24 - Under SERA, except when necessary for take-off or landing or by permission from the competent authority, VFR flights over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements shall not be flown at a height less than:
25 - A scheduled IFR operator plans a flight within the EUROCONTROL Network Manager area from Paris-Orly to Angouleme. Before filing, the planned destination is changed to Limoges because Angouleme is closed. Can the operator use the Network Manager repetitive flight plan (RPL) service for this flight under the current arrangements?
26 - On a north-polar grid whose grid north is parallel to the Greenwich meridian, an aircraft flies the great-circle route from A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to B (75°00'N 011°00'E). What is the final grid course at B, rounded to the nearest degree?
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27 - Refer to the original fictional route-network diagram. Every drawn segment may be flown in either direction. Which route follows the labelled segments from START to FINAL via NODAL and then CROSS, in that order?
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28 - Given: maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg maximum landing mass 56200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg dry operating mass 35500 kg estimated load 14500 kg estimated trip fuel 4900 kg minimum take-off fuel 7400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
29 - Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64.400 kg; maximum landing mass 56.200 kg; maximum zero fuel mass 53.000 kg; dry operating mass 35.500 kg; estimated load 14.500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4.900 kg; minimum take-off fuel 7.400 kg. Find: maximum additional load
30 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 2800 NM True track 140 W/V 140/100 TAS 500 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
31 - When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than:
32 - A 'current flight plan' is a:
33 - When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
34 - Use the attached MRJT1 training integrated-range table for 300 KIAS at FL210. For a 540 NM ground-distance leg, ISA +20 degrees C, headwind component 50 kt and initial cruise mass 60 000 kg, apply the wind-range and temperature corrections. Which listed fuel estimate is closest to the result using the table and graphical interpolation?
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35 - In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
36 - Assume a magnetic variation of 4 degrees East. What are the magnetic course and the distance for a flight from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E)?
37 - Under SERA flight-plan submission rules for Single European Sky airspace within the ICAO EUR region, which statement is correct?
38 - A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1 Fig. 3. 3). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min. Power setting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel.
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39 - For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is:
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40 - Using the attached historical CAA MARS EUR WINDS/TEMPS chart for FL300, valid 12/1800Z (data time 0000Z on 12 November 1997), which listed value is closest to the temperature deviation from ISA at 50°N 010°E?
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41 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 340 NM True track 320 W/V 160/40 TAS 110 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
42 - The fuel plan gives trip fuel of 65 US gallons, destination alternate fuel including final reserve of 17 US gallons, and contingency fuel of 5% of the planned trip fuel. Usable fuel at take-off is 93 US gallons. Halfway along the planned distance, 40 US gallons have been consumed. Assume actual fuel consumption per nautical mile remains unchanged for the rest of the route. Which statement is correct?
43 - Using the attached historical Paris Charles-de-Gaulle arrival training chart (1 November 1996, plate 20-2), what is the route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV), via ATREX, TARIM and BIBOP, to BOURSONNE (BSN)?
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44 - Use the attached SEP1 training Figure 2.5 under its associated conditions: initial fuel load 444 lb (74 US gal) and mass 3663 lb before engine start, sea-level departure and ISA conditions. At pressure altitude 7500 ft, full throttle, 2300 rpm and mixture 20 degrees C lean of peak EGT, what approximate endurance does the graph give, including its stated climb, taxi/runup and 45-minute reserve allowances?
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45 - For the EU basic fuel scheme for performance class A aeroplanes, when calculating the additional-fuel critical scenario after engine failure or loss of pressurisation, what holding allowance at the fuel en-route alternate is included before the approach and landing?
46 - The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is:
47 - Under SERA.5005(d)(2), what is the highest flight level at which a VFR flight may operate without invoking an exception to the restriction on VFR flights above FL 195? Other applicable airspace and clearance requirements still apply.
48 - You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is?
49 - Use the attached SEP1 training Table 2.3.1 (economy cruise power). At pressure altitude 6000 ft, ISA deviation 0 degrees C and cruise mass 3400 lb, the manifold pressure is set to 21.0 in Hg at 2100 rpm with cruise-lean mixture. What cruise true airspeed and fuel flow in lb/h are read from the table?
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50 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route:
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51 - 'Integrated range' curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is
52 - If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC flight plan, you write:
53 - Under SERA.4001 for Single European Sky airspace within the ICAO EUR region, how long before EOBT must the flight plan be submitted for a flight that may be subject to ATFM measures?
54 - For computer-generated operational flight plans under the EU basic fuel scheme for performance class A aeroplanes, which statements are correct? 1. The computer independently decides how much discretionary fuel to add for bad weather, without a decision by the commander. 2. Destination alternate fuel includes a missed approach at the destination, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing at the destination alternate.
55 - On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = 15 kt. FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC = 5 kt. FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = 15 kt. FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0. The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
56 - Using the attached MRJT1 training Figure 4.2 (Short Distance Cruise Altitude), which listed pressure altitude is closest to the chart reading for brake-release mass 45 000 kg, ISA +20 degrees C and trip distance 50 nautical air miles (NAM)?
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57 - Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption. Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
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58 - Take-off fuel is 160 kg, including the planned reserve. Halfway along the route, 70 kg remain. Assume actual fuel consumption per nautical mile will remain the same for the rest of the route. A suitable nearby alternate can be reached with the required arrival reserve. What should the pilot conclude?
59 - An aircraft is flying at Mach 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced Mach No. should be:
60 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM Endurance: 2,5 h True Track: 035 W/V: 250/20 TAS: 105 kt. What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
61 - Using the attached historical CAA MARS EUR WINDS/TEMPS chart for FL300, valid 07/1800Z (data time 0000Z on 7 March 1997), which listed temperature is closest to the approximate route-mean temperature on a true-north course along 040°E from 40°N to 50°N?
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62 - For given operating conditions, a fuel mass consumption of 200 kg/h has been established. If the density value used to convert that same planned mass consumption into litres per hour changes from 0.80 to 0.75 kg/litre, what mass consumption should still be used for a calculation expressed in kg/h?
63 - Using the attached historical Johannesburg/Jan Smuts TAF training bulletin, and including all probability groups valid at 0300 UTC, what is the lowest forecast cloud coverage and base (oktas/ft)?
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64 - In Item 19 of the ICAO flight-plan form, how are the preprinted emergency and survival equipment indicators completed?
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65 - According to the attached historical Schiphol training plate 10-3, which statement applies to an ANDIK departure from RWY19L? Read the procedure shown on this plate.
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66 - Assume a magnetic variation of 4 degrees East. What is the magnetic course for a VFR flight from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E)?
67 - In the ATC flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist:
68 - Using the attached CAA CAP 697 SEP1 training Figure 2.1 (July 2006 corrected edition), estimate time, fuel and still-air distance to climb. Initial climb mass: 3 500 lb; departure pressure altitude: 2 500 ft; departure OAT: +10°C; cruising pressure altitude: 14 000 ft; cruise OAT: -5°C. Use the associated climb conditions and subtract the departure cumulative readings from the cruise cumulative readings.
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69 - On the direct great-circle route from Shannon (52°43'N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N 054°32'W), what are approximately (a) the true course at the midpoint of the route and (b) the total distance?
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70 - During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.
71 - You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions: - dry operating mass: 2800 kg - trip fuel: 300 kg - traffic load: 400 kg - maximum take-off mass: 4200 kg - maximum landing mass: 3700 kg
72 - When completing an ATC flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be:
73 - For an IFR flight, estimated take-off from London is at 1000 UTC and arrival over the designated point from which the instrument approach at Munich (EDDM) will commence is at 1215 UTC. What destination and total estimated elapsed time are entered in Item 16 of the ATS flight plan?
74 - For an IFR flight with an instrument approach planned to commence at a designated initial approach fix (IAF) associated with the destination aerodrome, the total estimated elapsed time entered in Item 16 of the ATS flight plan is the time from:
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75 - On the attached historical Munich training plates, what are the localizer frequency in MHz and ILS identifier for RWY26R, shown on the left-hand plate?
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76 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 3750 NM Endurance: 9,5 h True Track: 360 W/V: 360/50 TAS: 480 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
77 - For a radio-equipped aircraft, the identification entered in Item 7 of the ATS flight plan must:
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78 - The true course is 042°. The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
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79 - According to ICAO rules for the ATC flight plan (Item 9), the wake turbulence category 'H' (Heavy) indicates an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of:
80 - The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
81 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as:
82 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Figure 4.7.2 (One Engine Inop): An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is:
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83 - How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75 departure aerodrome elevation 1500' QNH = 1023 hPa temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30'
84 - When completing Item 9 of the ATC flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered:
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85 - Using the attached historical CAA MARS EUR WINDS/TEMPS chart for FL300, valid 12/1800Z (data time 0000Z on 12 November 1997), which listed wind direction/speed (degrees true/kt) is closest to the plotted wind at 60°N 015°W?
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86 - In Item 15 of an ICAO ATS flight plan, how is a cruising true airspeed of 470 knots entered?
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87 - In which frequency bands are VOLMET voice broadcasts for aircraft in flight transmitted?
88 - Use the attached MRJT1 training Figure 4.5.1 for an en-route climb at 280 KIAS/Mach 0.74 from a sea-level airport to FL280. Brake-release mass is 57 500 kg, ISA deviation is -10 degrees C and the headwind component is 16 kt. What still-air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NGM), rounded to whole nautical miles, are obtained using the table and its ground-distance correction?
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89 - Refer to Performance Manual MRJT1 Page 21 Figure 4.5.1 En-route Climb 280/0.74 (continued) Find: Time, Fuel, Still-Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000'
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90 - What information does a VOR station give an aircraft when no DME is co-located with it?
91 - After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
92 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 210 NM Endurance: 3,5 h True Track: 310 W/V: 270/30 TAS: 120 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
93 - Refer to the original fictional training-route diagram. The planned route is DEP-FIX1-FIX2-DEST, with consecutive leg distances of 18 NM, 27 NM and 36 NM. Top of climb (TOC) is reached 32 NM after DEP, measured along this route. What distance remains from TOC to DEST along the planned route?
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94 - Refer to the original training figure. At longitude 006°02'E, the initial true track is 074°. Use an ideal north-polar grid whose grid north is parallel to the Greenwich meridian; at this position true north is 006°02' west of grid north. What is the initial grid track, to the nearest degree?
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95 - Use the attached MRJT1 training Figure 4.7.3 for a one-engine-inoperative diversion. Distance to the alternate is 720 NM, tailwind component 25 kt, mass at diversion 55 000 kg, temperature ISA and available diversion fuel 4250 kg. Which is the lowest of the listed pressure altitudes at which the chart indicates these conditions can be met?
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96 - In which frequency band does the VOR element of a VORTAC operate?
97 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 140 NM GS Out 90 kt GS Home 80 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
98 - Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg. Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg. Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel. Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
99 - Assume a magnetic variation of 4 degrees East. What is the magnetic course for a VFR flight from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)?
100 - Which unit is established to provide flight information service and alerting service within a flight information region?
101 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 150 NM True track 142 W/V 200/15 TAS 132 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
102 - In non-RVSM airspace, using the standard ICAO semicircular cruising-level table in feet with no regional or ATC variation, which listed level is appropriate for an IFR flight on a magnetic track of 200 degrees?
103 - In the attached historical SIGWX training chart, what is the approximate tropopause flight level near Shannon, 52 degrees N, 009 degrees W?
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104 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
105 - A performance class A jet aeroplane uses the EU basic fuel scheme without contingency-fuel variations. Trip fuel is 5350 kg and destination alternate fuel, including the complete missed approach and flight to the alternate, is 4380 kg. The fuel flow at the applicable 1500-ft holding conditions in standard atmosphere is 6000 kg/h for both contingency and final-reserve calculations. No further additional, extra or discretionary fuel is required. What is the minimum usable fuel required at take-off?
106 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 1950 NM GS Out 400 kt GS Home 300 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point?
107 - Given: X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B E = Endurance D = Distance A to B O = Groundspeed 'on' H = Groundspeed 'back'. The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is:
108 - Under the EU fuel rules for commercial air transport aeroplanes, for how long must the final reserve fuel of a turbojet aeroplane permit flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated using the estimated arrival mass?
109 - Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
110 - For this exercise, planned airborne trip time is 3 h 06 min, taxi fuel is 8 kg and block fuel is 118 kg. Block fuel consists only of taxi fuel, planned trip fuel and an initial reserve equal to 30% of planned trip fuel. Planned trip fuel flow is constant. The exercise requires a reserve of at least 30% of the remaining trip fuel at every point. After 2 hours airborne, what minimum trip fuel and reserve are required for the remaining flight, rounded to the nearest kg?
111 - Assume a magnetic variation of 4 degrees East. What are the magnetic course and the distance for a flight from SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E)?
112 - When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13: 'Time' is:
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113 - How should a pilot use the ATIS when calling the control tower of an aerodrome for the first time?
114 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 950 NM Endurance: 3,5 h TAS: 360 kt Ground Speed Out: 320 kt Ground Speed Home: 400 kt. What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
115 - In the attached historical SIGWX training chart, what is the most serious listed potential hazard associated with the volcanic feature near 38 degrees N, 015 degrees E?
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116 - The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM. Based on the wind charts at altitude the following components are found: FL50: -30kt, FL100: -50kt, FL180: -70kt. The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's performances. Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best range performance:
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117 - Before taxi the aircraft has 160 lb of usable block fuel. It consumes 13 lb during taxi. After 38 minutes airborne, 100 lb remain. Destination alternate fuel is 30 lb and final reserve fuel is 50 lb. If the airborne fuel flow remains unchanged, approximately how many further minutes can be flown to the destination while retaining both reserves?
118 - In the attached historical SIGWX training chart, which listed pair best represents the maximum wind direction (degrees true) and speed (knots) shown near Munich, approximately 48 degrees N, 012 degrees E?
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119 - An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kt. It flies from A to B and back to distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant. The duration of the flight will be:
120 - For an ATC flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is: