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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
2 - In accordance with Part-CAT, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
3 - Astronomic precession is:
4 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
5 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
6 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
7 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
8 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
9 - Once established on the NAT contingency parallel track offset by 5 NM, if the aircraft remains in the NAT level band, the vertical offset should normally be:
10 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
11 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
12 - Under current NAT contingency procedures, before applying the vertical offset after leaving the cleared route, the aircraft should if possible:
13 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
14 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
15 - An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew?
16 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
17 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
18 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
19 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
20 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
21 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
22 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
23 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
24 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
25 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
26 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
27 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
28 - If a NAT contingency requires a descent below FL 290 after the 5 NM parallel offset has been established, the aircraft should:
29 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
30 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
31 - A minimum time track is a:
32 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
33 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m: The pilot may start the final approach...
34 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
35 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
36 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
37 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
38 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
39 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
40 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?
41 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
42 - A commercial air transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
43 - In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
44 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
45 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have NAT HLA operational approval has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
46 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
47 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
48 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
49 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
50 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid?
51 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
52 - If all Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS) become unserviceable during a flight in NAT HLA and no ATC instruction is received, the crew should consider:
53 - From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
54 - Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
55 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
56 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
57 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
58 - A runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
59 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided: 1 - during taxying. 2 - during take-off. 3 - during landing. 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
60 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, assume the following circumstances: a category A aeroplane, an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting, multiple RVR information, and an acceptable alternate aerodrome available. The minimum RVR/visibility required for take-off is:
61 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
62 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
63 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
64 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
65 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
66 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
67 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
68 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
69 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
70 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
71 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
72 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
73 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
74 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
75 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic,...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
76 - You would use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a plastic fire; 3. a hydrocarbon fire; 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
77 - In accordance with Air OPS, the operator shall ensure that:
78 - A northern polar stereographic grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the geographic North Pole. A gyro without rate correction is aligned with Grid North at 14:00 UTC at 59°57'N 010°30'E and reads 120°. Take-off is delayed until 16:30 UTC and the gyro, with zero mechanical precession, is not reset. What is the gyro error at runway alignment?
79 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
80 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
81 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
82 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
83 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
84 - The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
85 - Under EASA Air OPS, who is responsible for providing an Operations Manual for the use and guidance of operations personnel?
86 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
87 - The wake turbulence:
88 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
89 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
90 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
91 - Under EASA Air OPS Part-CAT (CAT.IDE.A.250), an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 61 to 200 seats must be equipped in the passenger compartment with at least:
92 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
93 - For planning an IFR flight without a destination alternate aerodrome, VMC conditions must be forecast to remain effective for at least:
94 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
95 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
96 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
97 - On a polar stereographic projection, the Earth convergence between two points on the parallel 60°N is 20°. What is the approximate maximum cross-track difference between the great circle and the straight line joining the points?
98 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
99 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
100 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
101 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
102 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
103 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
104 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
105 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
106 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
107 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
108 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
109 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
110 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
111 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
112 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
113 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
114 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
115 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W. Drift: 6°L (left). The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3'W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
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116 - A runway is considered damp when:
117 - From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages. Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with current regulations for operating reasons:
118 - Arriving at the point of entry into NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
119 - In accordance with the PART-CAT, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with:
120 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
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