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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In accordance with the PART-CAT, a single deck airplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with:
2 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
3 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
4 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
5 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
6 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
7 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
8 - In accordance with OPS 1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
9 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
10 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
11 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
12 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language ?
13 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
14 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
15 - Astronomic precession:
16 - In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
17 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
18 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
19 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
20 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
21 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
22 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
23 - In accordance with OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
24 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
25 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
26 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
27 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
28 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC
29 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
30 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
31 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be:
32 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
33 - From the following list:1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
34 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
35 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
36 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
37 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
38 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
39 - The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
40 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
41 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
42 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
43 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
44 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
45 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
46 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
47 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
48 - A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
49 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
50 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
51 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
52 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
53 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
54 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
55 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
56 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
57 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
58 - The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR flight is:
59 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
60 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
61 - According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
62 - The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
63 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
64 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take- off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
65 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
66 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
67 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
68 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
69 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
70 - An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?
71 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
72 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
73 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
74 - You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore.The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
75 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
76 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
77 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
78 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
79 - In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
80 - For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
81 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
82 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
83 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid ?
84 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
85 - A class B fire is a fire of:
86 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
87 - The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
88 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
89 - Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the 'normal' position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
90 - A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
91 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
92 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
93 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
94 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
95 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
96 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
97 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
98 - A minimum time track is a:
99 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
100 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
101 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
102 - The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
103 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
104 - In accordance with IR-OPS (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for 'non-precision approach procedures', which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), MLS, GLS, VOR/DME, NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
105 - A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
106 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
107 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
108 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
109 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
110 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
111 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
112 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
113 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
114 - combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
115 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
116 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
117 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
118 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
119 - Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
120 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
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