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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
2 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
3 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
4 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
5 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
6 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
7 - A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
8 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
9 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
10 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
11 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
12 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
13 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
14 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
15 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
16 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
17 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
18 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
19 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
20 - On a polar stereographic grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian and oriented toward the true North Pole, the true initial orientation of the great circle from 62°N 010°E to 66°N 050°W is 305°. What is the grid route at the starting point?
21 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic,...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
22 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
23 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
24 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
25 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
26 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
27 - In commercial air transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
28 - A commercial air transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
29 - For an operation in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
30 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
31 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
32 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
33 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
34 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
35 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
36 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
37 - In accordance with Part-CAT 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1.3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
38 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
39 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
40 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
41 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
42 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
43 - If all Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS) become unserviceable during a flight in NAT HLA and no ATC instruction is received, the crew should consider:
44 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
45 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
46 - According to current commercial air transport rules, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
47 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
48 - Astronomic precession:
49 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
50 - Part-CAT applies to:
51 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
52 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
53 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
54 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
55 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
56 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
57 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
58 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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59 - A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
60 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
61 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
62 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
63 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
64 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
65 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
66 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
67 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
68 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided: 1 - during taxying. 2 - during take-off. 3 - during landing. 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
69 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
70 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
71 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
72 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
73 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
74 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
75 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
76 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
77 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
78 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
79 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
80 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
81 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
82 - The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
83 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
84 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
85 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
86 - In accordance with Air OPS, the operator shall ensure that:
87 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
88 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
89 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
90 - For operator aerodrome operating minima, the lowest circling minima typically used by an operator in a Category B aeroplane are:
91 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, assume the following circumstances: a category A aeroplane, an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting, multiple RVR information, and an acceptable alternate aerodrome available. The minimum RVR/visibility required for take-off is:
92 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
93 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
94 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
95 - In the Air OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
96 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
97 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
98 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a commercial air transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
99 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
100 - In accordance with Air OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
101 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
102 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
103 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
104 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
105 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
106 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
107 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
108 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
109 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
110 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
111 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
112 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
113 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
114 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
115 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
116 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
117 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
118 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
119 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
120 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
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