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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
2 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
3 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
4 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
5 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
6 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
7 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
8 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
9 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
10 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
11 - Wind shear is:
12 - In North Atlantic high-level operations, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
13 - According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
14 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
15 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
16 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
17 - In accordance with Air OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
18 - In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
19 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
20 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300', Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 m. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200'. Is take-off possible?
21 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
22 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
23 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
24 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
25 - A commercial air transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
26 - If it exists, the MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
27 - If a NAT contingency requires a descent below FL 290 after the 5 NM parallel offset has been established, the aircraft should:
28 - Under EASA Air OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
29 - When a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
30 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
31 - You would use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a plastic fire; 3. a hydrocarbon fire; 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
32 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
33 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
34 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
35 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
36 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
37 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
38 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
39 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
40 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
41 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
42 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
43 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
44 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
45 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
46 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
47 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
48 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
49 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
50 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
51 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, assume the following circumstances: a category A aeroplane, an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting, multiple RVR information, and an acceptable alternate aerodrome available. The minimum RVR/visibility required for take-off is:
52 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
53 - A windshield wiper, or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation, is required at each pilot station when operating an aeroplane with a:
54 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
55 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
56 - On aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25 000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
57 - The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data:
58 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
59 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
60 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be:
61 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
62 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
63 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
64 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
65 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
66 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
67 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
68 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
69 - According to current commercial air transport rules, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
70 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, which of the following are included in the aerodrome operating minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR; 2 - the ceiling; 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH); 4 - the decision height (DH)
71 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
72 - A class A fire is a fire of:
73 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
74 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
75 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
76 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
77 - In accordance with Part-CAT 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1.3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
78 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
79 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
80 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
81 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
82 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
83 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
84 - Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
85 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
86 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
87 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
88 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
89 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
90 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
91 - In accordance with Part-CAT, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
92 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
93 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
94 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
95 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
96 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
97 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
98 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally, at 30°W, between:
99 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
100 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
101 - Under EASA Air OPS, who is responsible for providing an Operations Manual for the use and guidance of operations personnel?
102 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
103 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
104 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
105 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a plastic fire. 3. a hydrocarbon fire. 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
106 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
107 - Part-CAT applies to:
108 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
109 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
110 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
111 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends from:
112 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
113 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
114 - For planning an IFR flight without a destination alternate aerodrome, VMC conditions must be forecast to remain effective for at least:
115 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
116 - Penetration into the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is:
117 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
118 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
119 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
120 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
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