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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
2 - When a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
3 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
4 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
5 - On a polar stereographic projection, the Earth convergence between two points on the parallel 60°N is 20°. What is the approximate maximum cross-track difference between the great circle and the straight line joining the points?
6 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
7 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
8 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
9 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
10 - Wind shear is:
11 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be:
12 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
13 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
14 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
15 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
16 - When dangerous goods cargo is delivered for transport, responsibility for compliance with the regulations lies with the:
17 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
18 - When leaving the NAT HLA oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
19 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
20 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
21 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
22 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
23 - From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages. Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with current regulations for operating reasons:
24 - During a flight to Europe planned in NAT HLA, a delay means the revised 30°W crossing will be outside the eastbound OTS validity period. The aircraft will normally be:
25 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
26 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
27 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
28 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
29 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
30 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
31 - On a polar stereographic grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian and oriented toward the true North Pole, the true initial orientation of the great circle from 62°N 010°E to 66°N 050°W is 305°. What is the grid route at the starting point?
32 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
33 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
34 - You would use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a plastic fire; 3. a hydrocarbon fire; 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
35 - Arriving at the point of entry into NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
36 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
37 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
38 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
39 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
40 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
41 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
42 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
43 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
44 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
45 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
46 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
47 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
48 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
49 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
50 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
51 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
52 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
53 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
54 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
55 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
56 - The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
57 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
58 - For operator aerodrome operating minima, the lowest circling minima typically used by an operator in a Category B aeroplane are:
59 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
60 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
61 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
62 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
63 - The touchdown areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:
64 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
65 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
66 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
67 - In accordance with Air OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
68 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
69 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?
70 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
71 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
72 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
73 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
74 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
75 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
76 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
77 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
78 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
79 - In current NAT operations, lateral separation is not represented by one fixed legacy value. It depends primarily on:
80 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
81 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
82 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
83 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
84 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
85 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
86 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
87 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
88 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
89 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
90 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
91 - At a given position where: g = the longitude difference Lm = the average latitude. Lo = the tangent of the latitude. The transport precession is equal to:
92 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
93 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
94 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
95 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally, at 30°W, between:
96 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
97 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W. Drift: 6°L (left). The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3'W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
question op1.webp
98 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
99 - Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the 'normal' position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
100 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
101 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
102 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
103 - A class A fire is a fire of:
104 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
105 - You intend to operate a commercial air transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
106 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
107 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends from:
108 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
109 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
110 - The wake turbulence:
111 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
112 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
113 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
114 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
115 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
116 - On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane, with 2 or more engines, unless carrying additional life saving equipment, at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
117 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
118 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
119 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
120 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
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