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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC
2 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
3 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
4 - You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore.The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
5 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
6 - What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)?:
7 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
8 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
9 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC
10 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
11 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
12 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
13 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
14 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
15 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
16 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
17 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
18 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
19 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
20 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
21 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
22 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
question op1.webp
23 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
24 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
25 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
26 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
27 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
28 - JAR-OPS 1 requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
29 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
30 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
31 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
32 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
33 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
34 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
35 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
36 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
37 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
38 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
39 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
40 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
41 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
42 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
43 - In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
44 - From the following list:1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons:
45 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
46 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
47 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
48 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
49 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
50 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
51 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
52 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
53 - The wake turbulence:
54 - According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
55 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
56 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
57 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
58 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
59 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m:Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m:The pilot may start the final approach ...
60 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
61 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
62 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
63 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
64 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
65 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
66 - In the Airspace where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
67 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
68 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
69 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
70 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
71 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
72 - A water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
73 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
74 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
75 - If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
76 - In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
77 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
78 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
79 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
80 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
81 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
82 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
83 - The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
84 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
85 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
86 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
87 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
88 - The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
89 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
90 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
91 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
92 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
93 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
94 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
95 - In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
96 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
97 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
98 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
99 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
100 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
101 - A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
102 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
103 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
104 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
105 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
106 - The aircraft is of Category
107 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
108 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
109 - The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
110 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
111 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
112 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
113 - The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR flight is:
114 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
115 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
116 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
117 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
118 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
119 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
120 - In accordance with the PART-CAT, a single deck airplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with:
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