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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
2 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
3 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
4 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
5 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
6 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
7 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a plastic fire. 3. a hydrocarbon fire. 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
8 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
9 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
10 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft?
11 - In NAT HLA, if an aircraft is unable to continue in accordance with its ATC clearance and a revised clearance cannot be obtained before action is required, the initial lateral action should be to:
12 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
13 - Part-CAT establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
14 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
15 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
16 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
17 - Penetration into the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is:
18 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
19 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
20 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a commercial air transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
21 - Astronomic precession is:
22 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
23 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
24 - In the Air OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
25 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
26 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
27 - When a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
28 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
29 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic,...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
30 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
31 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
32 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
33 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
34 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
35 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
36 - According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
37 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
38 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
39 - You intend to operate a commercial air transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
40 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300', Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 m. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200'. Is take-off possible?
41 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
42 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
43 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
44 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
45 - According to current commercial air transport rules, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
46 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
47 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
48 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
49 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
50 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
51 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
52 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
53 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
54 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
55 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
56 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
57 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
58 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
59 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
60 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
61 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
62 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
63 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
64 - On a polar stereographic grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian and oriented toward the true North Pole, the true initial orientation of the great circle from 62°N 010°E to 66°N 050°W is 305°. What is the grid route at the starting point?
65 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
66 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, which of the following are included in the aerodrome operating minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR; 2 - the ceiling; 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH); 4 - the decision height (DH)
67 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
68 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
69 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
70 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
71 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
72 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
73 - The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
74 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
75 - On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane, with 2 or more engines, unless carrying additional life saving equipment, at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
76 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
77 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
78 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
79 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
80 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
81 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
82 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
83 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
84 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
85 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
86 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
87 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
88 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
89 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
90 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
91 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
92 - In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
93 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
94 - Wind shear is:
95 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
96 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
97 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
98 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
99 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
100 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
101 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
102 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
103 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
104 - During a flight to Europe planned in NAT HLA, a delay means the revised 30°W crossing will be outside the eastbound OTS validity period. The aircraft will normally be:
105 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
106 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
107 - The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
108 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
109 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
110 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
111 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
112 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
113 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
114 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
115 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
116 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
117 - Under EASA Air OPS Part-CAT (CAT.IDE.A.250), an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 61 to 200 seats must be equipped in the passenger compartment with at least:
118 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
119 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
120 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
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