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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
2 - Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
4 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
5 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
6 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W. Drift: 6°L (left). The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3'W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
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7 - For a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
8 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, carpet,...). 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (sodium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
9 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
10 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
11 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
12 - A northern polar stereographic grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the geographic North Pole. A gyro without rate correction is aligned with Grid North at 14:00 UTC at 59°57'N 010°30'E and reads 120°. Take-off is delayed until 16:30 UTC and the gyro, with zero mechanical precession, is not reset. What is the gyro error at runway alignment?
13 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
14 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
15 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
16 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
17 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
18 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
19 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
20 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
21 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
22 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
23 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
24 - A class A fire is a fire of:
25 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
26 - A runway is considered damp when:
27 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
28 - In commercial air transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
29 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
30 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
31 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
32 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
33 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
34 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
35 - When the Mach number technique based on time is applied, the minimum longitudinal separation between two aircraft at the same flight level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
36 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
37 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
38 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
39 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
40 - An aircraft entering the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) through an oceanic control area other than Shanwick Oceanic:
41 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
42 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
43 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
44 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
45 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
46 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
47 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
48 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
49 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
50 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
51 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
52 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
53 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
54 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
55 - Under current NAT contingency procedures, before applying the vertical offset after leaving the cleared route, the aircraft should if possible:
56 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
57 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
58 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
59 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
60 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
61 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
62 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
63 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
64 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
65 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
66 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
67 - In NAT HLA, if an aircraft is unable to continue in accordance with its ATC clearance and a revised clearance cannot be obtained before action is required, the initial lateral action should be to:
68 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
69 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
70 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
71 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
72 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
73 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
74 - In accordance with the fuel scheme with variations for isolated aerodrome operations (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
75 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
76 - A commercial air transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
77 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
78 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
79 - When leaving the NAT HLA oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area with a fixed Mach number assigned by ATC, the pilot has to:
80 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
81 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
82 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
83 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
84 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
85 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
86 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
87 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
88 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
89 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
90 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
91 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
92 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
93 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
94 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
95 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
96 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
97 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
98 - For an operation in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) along routes T9 and T290, an approved aircraft carrying normal short-range navigation equipment (VOR, DME, ADF) must be equipped with at least:
99 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
100 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
101 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
102 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
103 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
104 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
105 - Astronomic precession is:
106 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
107 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
108 - On a GRF Runway Condition Report, a Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) of 1 corresponds to a pilot-reported braking action of:
109 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
110 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
111 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
112 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
113 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
114 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
115 - A class B fire is a fire of:
116 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
117 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
118 - Part-CAT applies to:
119 - In accordance with Air OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
120 - From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
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