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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
2 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - fires with an electrical origin4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productsWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
3 - A class A fire is a fire of:
4 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
5 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
6 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
7 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
8 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
9 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
10 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC
11 - combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
12 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
13 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
14 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
15 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
16 - An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
17 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
18 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
19 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
20 - The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
21 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
22 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
23 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC
24 - During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
25 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
26 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
27 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
28 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
29 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
30 - From the following list:1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons:
31 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
32 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
33 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
34 - According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
35 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
36 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
37 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
38 - An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?
39 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
40 - A water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
41 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
42 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
43 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
44 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
45 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
46 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
47 - A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
48 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
49 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
50 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
51 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
52 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
53 - For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
54 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
55 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
56 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by:
57 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
58 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
59 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
60 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
61 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
62 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
63 - In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
64 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
65 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
66 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
67 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
68 - The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
69 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
70 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
71 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
72 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
73 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
74 - At a given position where: g = the longitude difference Lm = the average latitudeLo = the tangent of the latitudeThe transport precession is equal to:
75 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
76 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
77 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
78 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
79 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
80 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
81 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
82 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
83 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
84 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
85 - The wake turbulence:
86 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
87 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
88 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
89 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
90 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
91 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
92 - OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
93 - According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
94 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
95 - In public transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
96 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
97 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
98 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
99 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
100 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
101 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
102 - A minimum time track is a:
103 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
104 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
105 - OPS 1 applies to:
106 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
107 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
108 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
109 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
110 - Astronomic precession:
111 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
112 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
113 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
114 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
115 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
116 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
117 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
118 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
119 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
120 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
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