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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
2 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
3 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
4 - Under current Air OPS criteria, for a localizer-only approach (ILS without glide path), the MDH should not be lower than:
5 - Under CAT.IDE.A.285, for an aeroplane capable of continuing to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) inoperative at any point on the route or planned diversions, which distance from land suitable for an emergency landing triggers the additional life-saving equipment requirement?
6 - When leaving the NAT HLA oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area with a fixed Mach number assigned by ATC, the pilot has to:
7 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
8 - For a Class C cargo compartment, which ventilation and fire-suppression principle is required by CS 25.857?
9 - A pressurised CAT aeroplane at FL370 has 180 cabin seats covered by CAT.IDE.A.235(b)(3), including passenger and cabin/additional-crew seats. Excluding separate flight-deck equipment, what minimum total number of cabin oxygen dispensing units and outlets is required?
10 - After any required immediate safety actions for a defect detected while parked, which operator-specific document determines whether an item listed in it may remain inoperative for dispatch and under what conditions?
11 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
12 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
13 - For correctly applied, eligible SAE Type I fluid on predominantly aluminium critical surfaces at −2°C, which listed condition has the shortest published HOT range in Tables 1 and 2 of the FAA Winter 2026–2027 guidelines?
14 - ICAO Annex 18 deals with:
15 - When planned fuel jettison is necessary, which listed operating approach is appropriate, subject to the aircraft’s approved procedure and the urgency of the situation?
16 - According to NOAA’s World Magnetic Model criteria, below which horizontal magnetic-field intensity H are locations within either the weak-field Caution Zone or the Blackout Zone?
17 - Under current CAT equipment criteria and applicable EU halon restrictions, how should a handheld aircraft fire-extinguishing agent be selected?
18 - During a flight to Europe planned in NAT HLA, a delay means the revised 30°W crossing will be outside the eastbound OTS validity period. The aircraft will normally be:
19 - On final approach, with windshear reported, indicated airspeed rises rapidly without a change in thrust or attitude. Which response best follows windshear safety principles?
20 - In accordance with SERA, the pilot shall ensure that:
21 - In a discretised minimum-time isochrone calculation, a trial air-relative displacement is calculated for a time step Δt starting from the preceding ground isochrone. For wind that may vary along the trial segment, which displacement must be added to obtain the ground displacement?
22 - For predominantly east-west random-route flight planning in the NAT region at or south of 70°N, additional significant points may be needed between 5°W and 65°W because of speed or crossing angle. At what longitude spacing are these additional points normally established?
23 - The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
24 - For a dangerous-goods cargo consignment for which the ICAO Technical Instructions require a transport document, which listed item must accompany the consignment for acceptance?
25 - An aeroplane crosses an idealised symmetric microburst. The along-track wind changes from a 40 kt headwind to a 40 kt tailwind. What is the total change in that wind component?
26 - A CAT aeroplane has an MOPSC of 100, one passenger compartment and a separate flight deck. What is the minimum combined number of hand fire extinguishers required for these two compartments?
27 - Who determines that the load and its distribution meet the aircraft mass and balance limits and indicates acceptance of the mass and balance documentation by hand signature or equivalent?
28 - With a light crosswind after a heavy aeroplane has landed, which statement correctly describes a wake-vortex hazard near the runway?
29 - What is the standard lower decision-height limit for a Category II (CAT II) approach (whose DH is below 200 ft)?
30 - When taking off behind a heavy aeroplane with a crosswind from the left, which relative flight path is preferable for wake avoidance when permitted by ATC and aircraft performance?
31 - Smoke entering the flight deck threatens the operating pilots’ breathing and vision. Which listed action provides immediate personal protection before system troubleshooting, in accordance with the aircraft’s smoke procedures?
32 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
33 - In an ideal spherical-Earth, zero-wind model, fly from A (60°N 010°E) to B (60°N 020°E) in 1 h 30 min at constant TAS. A locally level, perfectly operating directional gyro is initially aligned with true north at A and has no Earth-rate correction or slaving. Approximately which constant gyro heading should be flown, to the nearest degree?
34 - For the standard ICAO NADP 2 design, acceleration and flap/slat retraction must not be initiated below which height above aerodrome elevation, before considering any higher aircraft-specific or operational requirement?
35 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
36 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
37 - Under current NAT Doc 007 procedures, an en-route aircraft entering NAT oceanic airspace:
38 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
39 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
40 - For a turbine-engined aeroplane using the basic CAT fuel scheme with the isolated-aerodrome variation, the pre-flight calculation includes additional fuel of at least which amount above the isolated destination, including final reserve fuel?
41 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
42 - What is the purpose of supplemental oxygen after loss of cabin pressurisation?
43 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
44 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
45 - Under current NAT contingency procedures, before applying the vertical offset after leaving the cleared route, the aircraft should if possible:
46 - After a heavy-weight landing with substantial braking, which listed parameter is used to assess the overheating hazard at the wheel and brake assemblies?
47 - During an ILS approach by a CAT aeroplane with a DH not above 1,000 ft, the reported controlling RVR is below the applicable minimum. Under CAT.OP.MPA.305, the approach must not be continued beyond:
48 - For CAT VFR operations in an aeroplane whose AFM permits a minimum crew of one pilot, how is the required flight crew determined?
49 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
50 - For CAT III with a DH below 50 ft or no DH and fail-passive roll-out control, the standard table gives 125 m RVR. If the AFM specifies a certified lower capability and the operator meets the additional conditions, what is the lowest RVR floor permitted by that provision?
51 - Following an accident, for how long must the operator preserve the original flight-recorder data, unless the investigating authority directs otherwise?
52 - Under the current EASA CAT III minima table, with a DH from 50 to 99 ft and no higher applicable minimum, what is the tabulated minimum RVR when a roll-out control system is not required?
53 - In current NAT operations, lateral separation is not represented by one fixed legacy value. It depends primarily on:
54 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
55 - In an ideal spherical-Earth, zero-wind model, a locally level free directional gyro is correctly compensated for Earth-rate drift but not for transport wander. An autopilot maintains a constant heading relative to that gyro. Which path does the aeroplane follow?
56 - Under CAT.IDE.A.240, occupants of flight-deck seats on flight-deck duty in a non-pressurised CAT aeroplane must be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
57 - A NOTAM publishes new declared distances, with runway length available reduced below the published length because of reported conditions. Where is this reduced length, in metres, reported in a GRF SNOWTAM?
58 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
59 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
60 - Apparent Earth-rate drift of an ideal level, uncompensated directional gyro is:
61 - Windshear is defined as:
62 - An aeroplane in steady flight suddenly encounters an increasing tailwind, before thrust or attitude changes are made. Its initial loss of relative airspeed and lift tends to make it:
63 - For which of the following fire types is a carbon-dioxide (CO₂) hand extinguisher normally rated? 1. Paper. 2. Hydrocarbons. 3. Fabric. 4. Energised electrical equipment. 5. Wood.
64 - Under CAT.IDE.A.185, for an aeroplane with an MCTOM above 27,000 kg and a first individual CofA issued on or after 1 January 2022, the minimum CVR recording duration is:
65 - During a normal aeroplane take-off and landing, when is substantial airborne wake-vortex generation associated with wing lift?
66 - The holdover time of an aircraft’s ground anti-icing treatment has been exceeded before take-off. Under the operator’s approved procedures, what action is required?
67 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
68 - Can an ordinary passenger continuous-flow oxygen mask that draws cabin air be relied on as respiratory protection against severe cabin smoke?
69 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
70 - Under CAT.OP.MPA.225, when must each crew member be secured by all provided safety belts and restraint systems? 1 - during every taxi phase; 2 - during take-off; 3 - during landing; 4 - whenever the commander decides it is necessary for safety; 5 - during every other phase merely because the crew member is at a station. Select the applicable combination.
71 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
72 - Under EASA Air OPS, who is responsible for providing an Operations Manual for the use and guidance of operations personnel?
73 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
74 - A pressurised CAT aeroplane operated at FL390 has 200 cabin seats covered by CAT.IDE.A.235(b)(3), including the seats for passengers and cabin or additional crew members. Excluding the flight-deck crew’s separate equipment, what is the minimum total number of cabin oxygen dispensing units and outlets under the 10% additional-units requirement?
75 - Which description matches the NAT High Level Airspace (NAT HLA) in NAT Doc 007?
76 - Under the conventional PANS-ATM Mach-number technique based on time, with the required common-point and same-track conditions satisfied, what minimum longitudinal separation applies when the two aircraft maintain the same true Mach number?
77 - Under the current EASA CAT III minima table, with a DH below 50 ft or no DH and a fail-operational roll-out control system, what is the tabulated minimum RVR, assuming no higher applicable minimum?
78 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
79 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
80 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
81 - Under current CAT rules, an aeroplane with an MCTOM above 5,700 kg, first issued with an individual CofA before 1 April 1998, must have a CVR retaining at least the preceding:
82 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
83 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
84 - Without operational credits, what is the standard minimum decision height for a Category I (CAT I) instrument approach?
85 - Which listed sources can provide bird-hazard advisories or observations to pilots, where available? 1 - ATIS; 2 - NOTAMs; 3 - BIRDTAMs; 4 - an ordinary onboard weather-radar image alone, without bird-specific detection or interpretation; 5 - a report from another flight crew. Select the correct combination.
86 - A CAT aeroplane plans a straight-in VOR/DME approach with MDH 360 ft and a visibility minimum of 1,500 m. Reported visibility is 2,500 m and all other authorisations and planning requirements are met. How does the reported ceiling affect commencement under CAT.OP.MPA.305?
87 - Under M.A.305(e)(1), the aircraft technical log or equivalent data must cover at least which period prior to the last entry?
88 - Under CAT.IDE.A.185, an aeroplane with an MCTOM above 5,700 kg must have a CVR retaining at least:
89 - Where a halon extinguisher is lawfully installed and approved for the relevant fire classes, which listed fire types fall within its general extinguishing capability when used according to approved procedures? 1 - Ordinary combustible solids (fabric, plastics, etc.). 2 - Flammable liquids (alcohol, gasoline, etc.). 3 - Flammable gases. 4 - Combustible metals (magnesium, etc.).
90 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
91 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
92 - In the EASA Air OPS definition of dangerous goods, which document’s list or classification is referenced to identify such articles or substances?
93 - Within the scope of Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Part-CAT contains operational requirements for:
94 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
95 - For which of the following fire types is a carbon-dioxide (CO₂) hand extinguisher normally rated? 1. Paper. 2. Plastic. 3. Hydrocarbons. 4. Energised electrical equipment.
96 - On a GRF Runway Condition Report, a Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) of 1 corresponds to a pilot-reported braking action of:
97 - Which statement correctly describes the control response to a hazardous windshear encounter?
98 - Under CAT.IDE.A.240, when must 100% of passengers in a non-pressurised CAT aeroplane have supplemental oxygen for the entire flying time?
99 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
100 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
101 - An equipment failure during taxi requires an immediate abnormal or emergency response. Before considering MEL dispatch relief, where should the crew obtain the applicable response procedure?
102 - Under SERA, the minimum flight visibility for an aeroplane to conduct a special VFR flight is:
103 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
104 - An approved CAT LVTO meets the multi-engined stop-or-continue performance conditions. The runway has centre-line markings and end, edge and centre-line lights, with required RVR reporting; no higher AFM or operational limit applies. Under the EASA facilities table, what is the tabulated minimum RVR, without invoking the special 125 m provisions?
105 - What is the EASA tabulated minimum meteorological visibility for a Category A aeroplane circling approach, before considering any higher published requirement?
106 - For an Airbus A330-800/-900 landing-gear fire, with the fuel tanks not at risk, which agent does the manufacturer’s aircraft rescue and firefighting chart recommend, using a technique that avoids sudden cooling?
107 - In NAT HLA, if an aircraft is unable to continue in accordance with its ATC clearance and a revised clearance cannot be obtained before action is required, the initial lateral action should be to:
108 - Under the standard category-based time wake minima, a LIGHT aeroplane takes off from an intermediate part of the same runway behind a HEAVY (not SUPER) aeroplane. With no alternative approved wake scheme, what minimum time applies?
109 - Under ICAO Annex 17, paragraph 5.2.5, in addition to transmitting relevant information to States whose citizens are known to be on board, the State where an aircraft lands after unlawful interference must notify or transmit information by the most expeditious means to:
110 - In the JT8D-type inlet-pressure (Pt2) probe icing case described in FAA Air Florida training material, with engine anti-ice off, indicated EPR can be:
111 - When a dangerous-goods transport document is required, who is responsible for ensuring its compliant completion and the declaration signed by that party or on its behalf?
112 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
113 - For a pressurised CAT aeroplane at FL390, how is the minimum total number of cabin oxygen dispensing units and outlets calculated under CAT.IDE.A.235(d)?
114 - For a CAT aeroplane first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1 April 1998, what automatic CVR recording coverage is required as a minimum, in addition to recording cockpit checks where electrical power is available?
115 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
116 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p, with p in psi, estimate V for a tyre pressure of 16 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
117 - For a performance class A CAT aeroplane at dispatch, weather information indicates a wet runway at ETA. No applicable AFM wet-runway landing-distance data, special friction-improving data or reduced-landing-distance approval is available. Under CAT.POL.A.235(a)(2), by what percentage is the required dry-runway landing distance determined under CAT.POL.A.230 increased?
118 - Under the EASA framework, who develops the MMEL defining permitted inoperative items and their dispatch conditions?
119 - For the same aeroplane in comparable configuration and steady flight, which combination tends to produce the greatest initial wake-vortex strength?
120 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
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