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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
2 - In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
3 - The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
4 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be:
5 - The wake turbulence:
6 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EASA OPS is:
7 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
8 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
9 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
question op1.webp
10 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
11 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
12 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
13 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
14 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
15 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
16 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
17 - OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
18 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are:DH = 300'Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 mThe weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200' Is take-off possible?
19 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
20 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
21 - According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at least:
22 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
23 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
24 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
25 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
26 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
27 - According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
28 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
29 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
30 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
31 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
32 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
33 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
34 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
35 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
36 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
37 - In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
38 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
39 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
40 - The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to OPS 1 depends on the approved number of:
41 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
42 - A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
43 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
44 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
45 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
46 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC
47 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
48 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
49 - The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
50 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
51 - MNPS is the abbreviation for:
52 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
53 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
54 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
55 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
56 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
57 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
58 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
59 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
60 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC
61 - In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
62 - The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
63 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
64 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
65 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
66 - Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the 'normal' position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
67 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
68 - On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the 'true' orientation of the great circle linking point 62N 010E to point 66N 050W is 305. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
69 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
70 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
71 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
72 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
73 - A water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
74 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
75 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
76 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
77 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
78 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
79 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
80 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
81 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
82 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
83 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:
84 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
85 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
86 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
87 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
88 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
89 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
90 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
91 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
92 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
93 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
94 - In accordance with OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
95 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
96 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
97 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
98 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
99 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
100 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
101 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
102 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
103 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
104 - The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
105 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
106 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
107 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
108 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
109 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
110 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
111 - A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
112 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
113 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
114 - According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
115 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
116 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
117 - The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
118 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
119 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
120 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
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