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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
2 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
3 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
4 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
5 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
6 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
7 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
8 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
9 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
10 - You would use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a plastic fire; 3. a hydrocarbon fire; 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
11 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
12 - The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
13 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
14 - A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
15 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
16 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
17 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
18 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
19 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
20 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
21 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
22 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
23 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
24 - For an operation in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
25 - In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
26 - The wake turbulence:
27 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
28 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
29 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
30 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
31 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
32 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
33 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
34 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
35 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
36 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
37 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
38 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
39 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
40 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
41 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
42 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
43 - A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
44 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid ?
45 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have NAT HLA operational approval has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
46 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
47 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
48 - A class B fire is a fire of:
49 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
50 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
51 - A class A fire is a fire of:
52 - For a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
53 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
54 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
55 - In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
56 - The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data:
57 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
58 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
59 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
60 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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61 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
62 - For planning an IFR flight without a destination alternate aerodrome, VMC conditions must be forecast to remain effective for at least:
63 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
64 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
65 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
66 - In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
67 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
68 - In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR; 2 - the ceiling; 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH); 4 - the decision height (DH)
69 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
70 - In accordance with Part-CAT, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
71 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
72 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
73 - On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the 'true' orientation of the great circle linking point 62N 010E to point 66N 050W is 305. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
74 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
75 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
76 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
77 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
78 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
79 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
80 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take-off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take-off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
81 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
82 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
83 - For operator aerodrome operating minima, the lowest circling minima typically used by an operator in a Category B aeroplane are:
84 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
85 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
86 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
87 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
88 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
89 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
90 - At a given position where: g = the longitude difference Lm = the average latitude. Lo = the tangent of the latitude. The transport precession is equal to:
91 - In accordance with Air OPS, the operator shall ensure that:
92 - The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
93 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
94 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
95 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
96 - In accordance with Air OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
97 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
98 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...). 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (sodium, ...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
99 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
100 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
101 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
102 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
103 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300', Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 m. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200'. Is take-off possible?
104 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
105 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
106 - An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
107 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
108 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
109 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on one engine at an airspeed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air), a pilot has to choose an ATC route in North Atlantic high-level airspace while also taking the shortest possible time. Given that the three alternate aerodromes considered are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA and ST JOHN'S TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
110 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:
111 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
112 - You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
113 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
114 - When a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
115 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
116 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
117 - In North Atlantic high-level operations, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
118 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
119 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
120 - Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
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