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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - With a light crosswind after a heavy aeroplane has landed, which statement correctly describes a wake-vortex hazard near the runway?
2 - Under CAT.OP.MPA.140, without an ETOPS approval, a two-engined performance class A aeroplane with an MOPSC of 20 or more must remain within which flight-time distance of an adequate aerodrome, under standard conditions in still air?
3 - Under the basic CAT fuel scheme, for a two-engined aeroplane without ETOPS approval, the take-off alternate is normally within what flight time in ISA and still-air conditions, using actual take-off mass and the AFM one-engine-inoperative cruising speed?
4 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p, with p in psi, estimate V for a tyre pressure of 10.8 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
5 - Without operational credits, what is the standard minimum decision height for a Category I (CAT I) instrument approach?
6 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
7 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
8 - What is the EASA tabulated minimum meteorological visibility for a Category A aeroplane circling approach, before considering any higher published requirement?
9 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
10 - If a fire is suspected in an aircraft lavatory, which action is appropriate under the operator’s firefighting procedures?
11 - For a CAT aeroplane with an MOPSC of 200, what is the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required in the passenger compartments, apart from those required for other compartments?
12 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
13 - Under the standard time-based wake minima in AMC2–AMC3 ATS.TR.220, excluding VFR and visual-approach exceptions and alternative approved schemes, which listed case requires 3 minutes?
14 - For approved single-engined turbine CAT operations at night or in IMC under the basic fuel scheme, a take-off alternate is required. At a normal cruising speed of 150 kt in still air using actual take-off mass, what distance corresponds to the applicable take-off-alternate time limit?
15 - Under CAT.IDE.A.110, for fuses that are allowed to be replaced in flight, the required number of spare fuses of each rating is:
16 - A CAT aeroplane has an MOPSC of 10 and separate flight-deck and passenger compartments. Considering the hand-extinguisher requirements for those two compartments, the minimum arrangement is:
17 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
18 - A CAT aeroplane plans a straight-in VOR/DME approach with MDH 360 ft and a visibility minimum of 1,500 m. Reported visibility is 2,500 m and all other authorisations and planning requirements are met. How does the reported ceiling affect commencement under CAT.OP.MPA.305?
19 - For correctly applied, eligible SAE Type I fluid on predominantly aluminium critical surfaces at −2°C, which listed condition has the longest published HOT in Tables 1 and 2 of the FAA Winter 2026–2027 guidelines?
20 - Under CAT.OP.MPA.225, when must each crew member be secured by all provided safety belts and restraint systems? 1 - during every taxi phase; 2 - during take-off; 3 - during landing; 4 - whenever the commander decides it is necessary for safety; 5 - during every other phase merely because the crew member is at a station. Select the applicable combination.
21 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
22 - Under the basic CAT fuel scheme, a required take-off alternate for a three- or four-engined aeroplane should be within which flight time, using the AFM cruising speed in ISA and still-air conditions at actual take-off mass?
23 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
24 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
25 - A NOTAM publishes new declared distances, with runway length available reduced below the published length because of reported conditions. Where is this reduced length, in metres, reported in a GRF SNOWTAM?
26 - A pressurised CAT aeroplane at FL330 carries 22 passengers and is required to carry cabin crew. Under CAT.IDE.A.230, what is the minimum number of passengers for whom its first-aid oxygen supply must provide undiluted oxygen for the remainder of the flight after depressurisation, while cabin altitude is above 8,000 ft but not above 15,000 ft?
27 - Under CAT.IDE.A.235, above which pressure flight level must a pressurised CAT aeroplane be equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks for the flight crew?
28 - Refer to figure op1. The INS position is 71°55.1′N 094°55.3′W, tracking north along the meridian to RESOLUTE BAY VOR at 74°43.6′N 094°55.3′W, with 6° left drift. The VOR is referenced to true north. The gyro has been reset to north on a north-polar grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian. Assume the RMI shows the unconverted VOR true-bearing input against its grid-heading card and that height effects on DME are negligible (use 1 NM per minute of latitude). Which displayed RMI/DME combination is correct?
question op1.webp
29 - For a CAT aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness before 1 April 1998, a required cockpit voice recorder must retain at least the preceding:
30 - For a pressurised CAT aeroplane at FL390, how is the minimum total number of cabin oxygen dispensing units and outlets calculated under CAT.IDE.A.235(d)?
31 - During an ILS approach by a CAT aeroplane with a DH not above 1,000 ft, the reported controlling RVR is below the applicable minimum. Under CAT.OP.MPA.305, the approach must not be continued beyond:
32 - For a CAT aeroplane with an MCTOM above 5,700 kg, the required flight data recorder must retain the recorded data for at least the preceding:
33 - Under the standard category-based time wake minima, a LIGHT aeroplane takes off from an intermediate part of the same runway behind a HEAVY (not SUPER) aeroplane. With no alternative approved wake scheme, what minimum time applies?
34 - An all-purpose (ABC-rated) dry-chemical extinguisher is rated for which of these fire types? 1. Paper. 2. Plastic. 3. Hydrocarbons. 4. Energised electrical equipment.
35 - According to the UK CAA long-grass policy guidance, which of these habitat-management approaches can reduce attraction to hazardous birds when suitable for local species and conditions?
36 - Under the general FCL.060 recency rule for CAT or passenger-carrying operations, a co-pilot must have completed:
37 - An aeroplane crosses an idealised symmetric microburst. The along-track wind changes from a 40 kt headwind to a 40 kt tailwind. What is the total change in that wind component?
38 - An aeroplane in steady flight suddenly encounters an increasing tailwind, before thrust or attitude changes are made. Its initial loss of relative airspeed and lift tends to make it:
39 - In the JT8D-type inlet-pressure (Pt2) probe icing case described in FAA Air Florida training material, with engine anti-ice off, indicated EPR can be:
40 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
41 - Under CAT.IDE.A.185, an aeroplane with an MCTOM above 5,700 kg must have a CVR retaining at least:
42 - For a CAT operator’s dangerous-goods transport requiring specific approval, where is that operational authorisation recorded?
43 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
44 - If all Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS) become unserviceable during a flight in NAT HLA and no ATC instruction is received, the crew should consider:
45 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
46 - Under CAT.IDE.A.240, which option gives the complete altitude/time requirement for supplemental oxygen for required cabin crew in a non-pressurised CAT aeroplane?
47 - Refer to figure op2. For a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000 ft and a cabin-to-ambient pressure differential of 2 psi, which listed aircraft pressure altitude is closest to the ISA pressure calculation?
question op2.webp
48 - In North Atlantic high-level operations, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
49 - A minimum time track is a:
50 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
51 - In accordance with SERA, the pilot shall ensure that:
52 - Which listed sources can provide bird-hazard advisories or observations to pilots, where available? 1 - ATIS; 2 - NOTAMs; 3 - BIRDTAMs; 4 - an ordinary onboard weather-radar image alone, without bird-specific detection or interpretation; 5 - a report from another flight crew. Select the correct combination.
53 - ICAO Annex 18 deals with:
54 - According to NOAA’s World Magnetic Model criteria, below which horizontal magnetic-field intensity H are locations within either the weak-field Caution Zone or the Blackout Zone?
55 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
56 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
57 - When a dangerous-goods transport document is required, who is responsible for ensuring its compliant completion and the declaration signed by that party or on its behalf?
58 - Under M.A.305(e)(1), the aircraft technical log or equivalent data must cover at least which period prior to the last entry?
59 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p, with p in psi, estimate V for a tyre pressure of 12 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
60 - Under CAT.IDE.A.240 for a non-pressurised aeroplane, which complete pressure-altitude band has a minimum 10% passenger oxygen requirement after the initial 30 minutes, with 100% passenger coverage required above its upper limit?
61 - In accordance with SERA, the pilot shall ensure that:
62 - Who determines that the load and its distribution meet the aircraft mass and balance limits and indicates acceptance of the mass and balance documentation by hand signature or equivalent?
63 - A pressurised CAT aeroplane operated at FL390 has 200 cabin seats covered by CAT.IDE.A.235(b)(3), including the seats for passengers and cabin or additional crew members. Excluding the flight-deck crew’s separate equipment, what is the minimum total number of cabin oxygen dispensing units and outlets under the 10% additional-units requirement?
64 - Following an act of unlawful interference in CAT operations, which statement correctly distinguishes the pilot-in-command’s ICAO report and the operator’s occurrence-reporting responsibilities?
65 - In the representative diluter-demand regulator described in the FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Airframe handbook, with the selector at NORMAL, approximately which cabin altitude causes dilution with cabin air to cease and the mask supply to become 100% oxygen?
66 - For an Airbus A330-800/-900 landing-gear fire, with the fuel tanks not at risk, which agent does the manufacturer’s aircraft rescue and firefighting chart recommend, using a technique that avoids sudden cooling?
67 - When departing after a larger aeroplane has landed on the same runway, which rotation-point precaution is recommended for wake avoidance, if the runway length and aircraft performance permit it?
68 - Under the current Air OPS definition, a runway with visible dampness but no shiny appearance is classified as:
69 - For a pressurised CAT aeroplane operated above 25,000 ft, which minimum total cabin oxygen-unit and outlet calculation is required under CAT.IDE.A.235(d)?
70 - After any required immediate safety actions for a defect detected while parked, which operator-specific document determines whether an item listed in it may remain inoperative for dispatch and under what conditions?
71 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
72 - Smoke entering the flight deck threatens the operating pilots’ breathing and vision. Which listed action provides immediate personal protection before system troubleshooting, in accordance with the aircraft’s smoke procedures?
73 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
74 - A CAT operator holds the required dangerous-goods transport approval. Which further requirement applies to a cargo consignment requiring that approval?
75 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p with p in psi, estimate V for 8 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
76 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
77 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p, with p in psi, estimate V for a tyre pressure of 10 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
78 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
79 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
80 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
81 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
82 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
83 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
84 - If a NAT contingency requires a descent below FL 290 after the 5 NM parallel offset has been established, the aircraft should:
85 - For a CAT aeroplane first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1 April 1998, what automatic CVR recording coverage is required as a minimum, in addition to recording cockpit checks where electrical power is available?
86 - Under the basic CAT fuel scheme, a required take-off alternate for a two-engined aeroplane without ETOPS approval should be within which flight time in ISA and still air, using actual take-off mass and the AFM cruising speed?
87 - In the Air OPS definition, which listed parameters may form aerodrome operating minima for a 2D instrument approach? 1 - RVR or visibility; 2 - ceiling, if necessary; 3 - minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H); 4 - decision altitude/height (DA/H).
88 - After explosive decompression to 40,000 ft without supplemental oxygen, which statement best describes time of useful consciousness?
89 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
90 - The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
91 - Under current NAT contingency procedures, before applying the vertical offset after leaving the cleared route, the aircraft should if possible:
92 - For an aeroplane conducting a special VFR flight under SERA, the minimum flight visibility is:
93 - Under the current Air OPS definition, a wet runway has visible dampness or water up to and including 3 mm deep within the area intended for use. Which listed conditions fall within that definition? 1 - water no deeper than 3 mm; 2 - visible dampness that changes the surface colour without a shiny appearance; 3 - a reflective moisture film no deeper than 3 mm; 4 - standing water deeper than 3 mm.
94 - Under CAT.IDE.A.185, for an aeroplane with an MCTOM above 27,000 kg and a first individual CofA issued on or after 1 January 2022, the minimum CVR recording duration is:
95 - During a ditching evacuation, when should passengers using ordinary inflatable life jackets inflate them (excluding infant-specific flotation procedures)?
96 - A class A fire is a fire of:
97 - Which description matches the NAT High Level Airspace (NAT HLA) in NAT Doc 007?
98 - Under current EASA CAT guidance, which statement about a flight-deck hand fire extinguisher is correct?
99 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
100 - Before offering a dangerous-goods consignment for air transport, who is responsible for its compliant classification, packing, marking, labelling and required shipper’s declaration?
101 - What is the relationship between noise-abatement procedures and the use of reverse thrust during landing?
102 - Under the basic CAT fuel scheme, a required take-off alternate for a two-engined aeroplane without ETOPS approval should be within which flight time in ISA and still air, using actual take-off mass and the AFM cruising speed?
103 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
104 - For an internal engine tailpipe fire during ground start or shutdown, when the aircraft’s approved procedure calls for ventilation with fuel and ignition off, which action provides that ventilation?
105 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
106 - For approach-category determination, what multiplier is applied to VS0 in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass, as distinct from the alternative calculation using VS1g?
107 - Using the EASA training approximation for rotating-tyre dynamic hydroplaning spin-down speed, V (kt) = 9 × √p, with p in psi, estimate V for a tyre pressure of 16 bar. Use 1 bar = 14.5038 psi and round to the nearest knot.
108 - Under the standard category-based ATS surveillance wake minima in AMC6 ATS.TR.220, a HEAVY aeroplane follows another HEAVY (not SUPER) aeroplane on approach to the same runway. With no alternative approved wake scheme, what minimum wake separation applies?
109 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
110 - Under CAT.IDE.A.240, occupants of flight-deck seats on flight-deck duty in a non-pressurised CAT aeroplane must be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
111 - On an ideal spherical Earth, neglecting Earth rotation, wind and instrument errors, a locally level free gyro is parallel-transported as the aeroplane flies. Holding a constant heading relative to that gyro produces which path?
112 - An approved CAT LVTO meets the multi-engined stop-or-continue performance conditions. The runway has centre-line markings and end, edge and centre-line lights, with required RVR reporting; no higher AFM or operational limit applies. Under the EASA facilities table, what is the tabulated minimum RVR, without invoking the special 125 m provisions?
113 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
114 - Under CAT.OP.MPA.130, who is responsible for establishing appropriate aeroplane-type operating departure and arrival/approach procedures for noise abatement?
115 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
116 - Before offering a dangerous-goods consignment for air transport, who has the initial responsibility to ensure that the goods are not forbidden for carriage?
117 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
118 - Under CAT.IDE.A.190, an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 June 1990 must have a flight data recorder when its maximum certificated take-off mass exceeds:
119 - Ice, frost or snow contamination that reduces the maximum lift coefficient of an aeroplane’s wings, with other conditions unchanged, increases its:
120 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
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