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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
2 - As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird strike hazards by means of: 1 - ATIS; 2 - NOTAMs; 3 - BIRDTAMs; 4 - Weather radar; 5 - The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
4 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
5 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
6 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
7 - An aeroplane having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid:
8 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
9 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
10 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
11 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
12 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
13 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
14 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
15 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
16 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
17 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
18 - In the event of communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the pilot must:
19 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
20 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
21 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
22 - The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
23 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
24 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
25 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
26 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
27 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
28 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
29 - When dangerous goods cargo is delivered for transport, responsibility for compliance with the regulations lies with the:
30 - A windshield wiper, or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation, is required at each pilot station when operating an aeroplane with a:
31 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
32 - Penetration into the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is:
33 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a plastic fire. 3. a hydrocarbon fire. 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
34 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
35 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
36 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
37 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
38 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
39 - Astronomic precession is:
40 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
41 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
42 - In North Atlantic high-level operations, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
43 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
44 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
45 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
46 - Under EASA Air OPS Part-CAT (CAT.IDE.A.250), an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 61 to 200 seats must be equipped in the passenger compartment with at least:
47 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
48 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
49 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
50 - For planning an IFR flight without a destination alternate aerodrome, VMC conditions must be forecast to remain effective for at least:
51 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m: The pilot may start the final approach...
52 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
53 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
54 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
55 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
56 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
57 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
58 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
59 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
60 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
61 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
62 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
63 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
64 - A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
65 - Under current commercial air transport operating rules, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
66 - The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
67 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
68 - In NAT HLA, if an aircraft is unable to continue in accordance with its ATC clearance and a revised clearance cannot be obtained before action is required, the initial lateral action should be to:
69 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
70 - The touchdown areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:
71 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
72 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
73 - Arriving at the point of entry into NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
74 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
75 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
76 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
77 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
78 - In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
79 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
80 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
81 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
82 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
83 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
84 - On a polar stereographic grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian and oriented toward the true North Pole, the true initial orientation of the great circle from 62°N 010°E to 66°N 050°W is 305°. What is the grid route at the starting point?
85 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
86 - An aircraft at FL 370 in NAT HLA cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing a 5 NM parallel same-direction offset, if remaining in the NAT level band, the crew should normally:
87 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an aeroplane at take-off:
88 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
89 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
90 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
91 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
92 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
93 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
94 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
95 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
96 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
97 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
98 - An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew?
99 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
100 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
101 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
102 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher. 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher. 3. a halon fire-extinguisher. 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
103 - In current NAT operations, lateral separation is not represented by one fixed legacy value. It depends primarily on:
104 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
105 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
106 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
107 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
108 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
109 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
110 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
111 - At a given position where: g = the longitude difference Lm = the average latitude. Lo = the tangent of the latitude. The transport precession is equal to:
112 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
113 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
114 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:
115 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
116 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
117 - Part-CAT applies to:
118 - From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages. Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with current regulations for operating reasons:
119 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
120 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
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