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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
2 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
3 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
4 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
5 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing?
6 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
7 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
8 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
9 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
10 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
11 - A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
12 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
13 - As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird strike hazards by means of: 1 - ATIS; 2 - NOTAMs; 3 - BIRDTAMs; 4 - Weather radar; 5 - The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
14 - If it exists, the MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
15 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
16 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
17 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
18 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
19 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
20 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
21 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
22 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
23 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
24 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
25 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
26 - Part-CAT establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
27 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher. 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher. 3. a halon fire-extinguisher. 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
28 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
29 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
30 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
31 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
32 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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33 - In commercial air transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
34 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
35 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
36 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
37 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
38 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
39 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
40 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
41 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
42 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
43 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
44 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
45 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
46 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
47 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends from:
48 - In the Air OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
49 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
50 - A windshield wiper, or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation, is required at each pilot station when operating an aeroplane with a:
51 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
52 - Wind shear is:
53 - On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane, with 2 or more engines, unless carrying additional life saving equipment, at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
54 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
55 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
56 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
57 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
58 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
59 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
60 - Astronomic precession:
61 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
62 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
63 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
64 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
65 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?
66 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
67 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
68 - A northern polar stereographic grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the geographic North Pole. A gyro without rate correction is aligned with Grid North at 14:00 UTC at 59°57'N 010°30'E and reads 120°. Take-off is delayed until 16:30 UTC and the gyro, with zero mechanical precession, is not reset. What is the gyro error at runway alignment?
69 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
70 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
71 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
72 - On a polar stereographic grid parallel to the Greenwich meridian and oriented toward the true North Pole, the true initial orientation of the great circle from 62°N 010°E to 66°N 050°W is 305°. What is the grid route at the starting point?
73 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
74 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
75 - Under EASA Air OPS, who is responsible for providing an Operations Manual for the use and guidance of operations personnel?
76 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
77 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
78 - At a given position where: g = the longitude difference Lm = the average latitude. Lo = the tangent of the latitude. The transport precession is equal to:
79 - You intend to operate a commercial air transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
80 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
81 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
82 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
83 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
84 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
85 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
86 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
87 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
88 - On a polar stereographic projection, the Earth convergence between two points on the parallel 60°N is 20°. What is the approximate maximum cross-track difference between the great circle and the straight line joining the points?
89 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
90 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
91 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
92 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
93 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
94 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
95 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
96 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally, at 30°W, between:
97 - For unrestricted operation in NAT HLA, the minimum long-range navigation fit is normally:
98 - The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
99 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
100 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
101 - Astronomic precession is:
102 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
103 - Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:
104 - A runway is considered damp when:
105 - In accordance with Part-CAT 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1.3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
106 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
107 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
108 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
109 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
110 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
111 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
112 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
113 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
114 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
115 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a plastic fire. 3. a hydrocarbon fire. 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
116 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
117 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
118 - In North Atlantic high-level operations, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
119 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
120 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
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