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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
2 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
3 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
4 - In accordance with OPS 1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
5 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
6 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
7 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
8 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
9 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
10 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
11 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
12 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
13 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
14 - According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at least:
15 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
16 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
17 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
18 - In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
19 - During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
20 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
21 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
22 - What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)?:
23 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
24 - The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
25 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
26 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
27 - A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:
28 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
29 - A class B fire is a fire of:
30 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
31 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
32 - The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data:
33 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
34 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid ?
35 - MNPS is the abbreviation for:
36 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
37 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
38 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:
39 - A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
40 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
41 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
42 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
43 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
44 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
45 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
46 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
47 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
48 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
49 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
50 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
51 - You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore.The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
52 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
53 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
54 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be:
55 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
56 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
57 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
58 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
59 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
60 - From the following list:1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
61 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
62 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
63 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
64 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
65 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided1 - during taxying 2 - during take-off 3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his stationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
66 - In accordance with OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
67 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
68 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
69 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
70 - A class A fire is a fire of:
71 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
72 - The wake turbulence:
73 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
74 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
75 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
76 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
77 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
78 - The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
79 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
80 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
81 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
82 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
83 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
84 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
85 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
86 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EASA OPS is:
87 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
88 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
89 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
90 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
91 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
92 - Astronomic precession:
93 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
94 - In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
95 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
96 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
97 - The abbreviation MNPS means:
98 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
99 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
100 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
101 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
102 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
103 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
104 - In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
105 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
106 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
107 - A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
108 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
109 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
110 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
111 - The aircraft is of Category
112 - According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
113 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
114 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
115 - According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
116 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
117 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
118 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:
119 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
120 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point
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