Test 120 exam questions on Operational Procedures for ATPL

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1 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is: 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 20 minutes.

2 - The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the: Flight manual. Operations manual. Air operator certificate. AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).

3 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the: True North for a given chart Grid North for any chart True North for any chart Grid North for a given chart

4 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: The airline is approver to and complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284) No passenger is carried on the same flight Government permission has been granted and compliance with the technical instructions National aviation administration permission has been granted

5 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than: 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 11 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft 11 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 10 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft

6 - Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is: Subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not) Subject to a mandatory clearance Subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed Not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled

7 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of: Rain on a cold soaked wing Freezing fog Steady snow Frost

8 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider: Return to departure airport Descend below the MNPS space Land at the nearest airport Climbing or descending 500 feet

9 - The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between: 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

10 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within: One hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. Two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed. Two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. One hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed.

11 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches: 56 kt 113 kt 145 kt 87 kt

12 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by: The manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL) The operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) The manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) The operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

13 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must: Not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast. Take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed. Select two destination alternates. Take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1.500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.

14 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: Take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan Maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance Take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by their airline Take any Mach number

15 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation? The flight engineer. The operator. The airline's dispatcher. The commander.

16 - OPS 1 applies to: Aircraft used by police, customs and defence departments. Aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil aircraft. The operation by a EASA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.

17 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned: At a Mach number of 0.70 or less Outside scheduled flight times At FL 290 At FL 280 or less

18 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is: A 7600 A 7500 A 2000 A 7700

19 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are: At the estimated time of arrival, at or above the planning minima. During a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima. At the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. At the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

20 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is: 100 kt 114 kt 80 kt 129 kt

21 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least: 15 months 12 months 24 months 3 months

22 - A water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 3, 4, 5

23 - The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft: Is forbidden in all circumstances Can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller Can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with the conflicting aircraft pilot Can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems

24 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless: He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days He has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

25 - In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system: Set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one Request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft Immediately climb or descend 1000' Notify Air Traffic Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

26 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to: Provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation Protect an aircrew who fights a fire Assist a passenger with breathing disorders Provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

27 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than: 30 9 19 61

28 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off: Stagnate on the runway. Separate on each side of the runway. Separate to the left side. Separate to the right side.

29 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including: 1 halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent. 3 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent. 2 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent. No halon fire-extinguisher.

30 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is: 14000 ft 15000 ft 13000 ft 25000 ft

31 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs: Under 500 m Between 500 and 1 500 m Between 500 and 1 000 m Above 1 000 m

32 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4 1,2,3 1,2,4 2,3,4

33 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be: 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1 5 % of the number fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 2 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 3

34 - The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least: Two inertial navigation systems One inertial navigation system Three inertial navigation systems One Global Navigation Satellite System

35 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take- off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of: 135 000 Kg or more Less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg 136 000 Kg or more 146 000 Kg or more

36 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness. 25 hours of its operation. 20 hours of its operation. 30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.

37 - A minimum time track is a: Great circle track Track determined according to wind conditions Spherical capable flight segment Rhumb line

38 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done: As soon as possible after entering the NAT region On ATC request only Within 15 min after crossing the oceanic airspace boundary At or prior to entering the oceanic airspace

39 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m:Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m:The pilot may start the final approach ... If the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240' If the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360' If the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240' during the day and 360' at night Regardless the ceiling given by ATC

40 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be: To warn the ATC To set the transponder to 7700 To comfort your passengers To put on the oxygen mask

41 - During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC You will normally be: Outside the validity period of the organised track system. In a night-time organised track system. Within the polar track system.

42 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: 3600 m 2400 m 1500 m 1600 m

43 - An aircraft leaves point P (60N 030W) on a true heading equal to 090 while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62N 010W) on a true heading equal to 095. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 h 30 min, the gyro heading at Q will be: 328 334 003 345

44 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within: 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. 2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed. 1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. 1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

45 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to: Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator The Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful interference The Authority of the State of the operator only The local authority only

46 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ? 5 minutes 4 minutes 2 minutes 3 minutes

47 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is: 14000 ft 25000 ft 2500 ft 8000 ft

48 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible: Distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path. Distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path. Distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path. Identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

49 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time: During strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet blast. When the aeroplane is parked facing into wind. When the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0 ° When the outside temperature is close to 0 °

50 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off: 200 m 150 m 250 m 300 m

51 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from: 30° North to 90° North 27° North to 70° North 27° North to 90° North 30° North to 70° North

52 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than: 150 m 100 m 75 m 50 m

53 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: 12 hours 6 hours 24 hours 3 hours

54 - In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must: Return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged. Join one of the so-called 'special' routes. Continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged. Change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.

55 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with: The noise pollution of aircraft The air transport of live animals The technical operational use of aircraft The safety of the air transport of dangerous goods

56 - In the Airspace where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is: 1 000 ft 1 500 ft 2000ft 500 ft

57 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: Speed is greater than 108 kt. Runway temperature is greater than 40� Speed is greater than 96 kt. Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

58 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to: Protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation. Protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. Provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes. Provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation.

59 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is: 1 minute. 30 seconds. 5 minutes. 12 seconds.

60 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He Can request a delay of 48 hours. Shall do so, within a reasonable period of time. Shall do so if authorised by the operator. Can refuse to present them.

61 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is: Water may only be used for minor fires. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes. Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide. A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

62 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when: Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

63 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is: 9.2 NM 30 NM 40 NM 4.0 NM

64 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: Extinguish fire only. Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning. Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden. You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

65 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than: 100 NM 200 NM 50 NM 400 NM

66 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? Maintaining the grass on the airfield A opened refuse tip in close vicinity The extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel Modern and close sewage treatment centre in close proximity

67 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than: 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude 4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude

68 - In accordance with OPS 1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than: 230 m 250 m 300 m 200 m

69 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 3 - 4 1 2 - 3 - 4

70 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it: Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane Occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes Can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

71 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: White steady light Green steady light Green and white flashing light Red steady light

72 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in: Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention. The shippers declaration for dangerous goods. Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention. The technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

73 - If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by: The aircraft manufacturer's list. The operator. The aircraft state of registry. The manufacturer / the type certificate holder.

74 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by: Using the abbreviation 'OTS' followed by the code letter assigned to the track Inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message Inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude The abbreviation 'NAT' followed by the code letter assigned to the track

75 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

76 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: Electrical source fires Class B fires Special fires: metals, gas, chemical products Class A fires

77 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last: 30 hours of operation. Flight. 25 hours of operation. 48 hours of operation.

78 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: The OPS. The operations manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency procedures'. The flight manual. The minimum equipment list.

79 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that: For VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000m. For VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250m. Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km. For VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000ft) is at least 5 km (clear of cloud).

80 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within: 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

81 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: 500 m 800 m 350 m 550 m

82 - MNPS is the abbreviation for: Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Minimum Navigation Positioning System Military Network Performance Structure

83 - In public transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless: The external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the performance of the aeroplane except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual Ice accretions do not lead to an exceeding of mass and balance limits. External surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing. External surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.

84 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft: Is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear. Is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station. Is prohibited. Is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened.

85 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a: Representative of the company owning the goods. Transport document for dangerous goods. System to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature. Specialized handling employee.

86 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by: The airline operator and approved by the authority. The Civil Aviation Authority of the European states. The aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on. The manufacturer and approved by the authority.

87 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear: Sidewards. Either from aft or fore. From the inboard side. From any direction.

88 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above: 13000 ft. 15000 ft. 14000 ft. 10000 ft.

89 - The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications. 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region. 60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace. 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

90 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm. It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

91 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is: Authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary. Forbidden. Authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt. Authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

92 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: Flying above 3.000 ft above ground. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace. Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.

93 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be: 2 MIN 1 MIN 4 MIN 3 MIN

94 - A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of: Passengers. Seats. Passengers exceeded by 10%. Seats exceeded by 10%.

95 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding: 2 hours of flight time at cruising speed 1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed 2 hours of flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed 1 hour of flight time at cruising speed

96 - The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR flight is: 5 km 1.5 km 2.5 km 3 km

97 - Astronomic precession is: Independent of the latitude Existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying Zero when the aircraft is on the ground Depending on the chart used

98 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are:DH = 300'Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 mThe weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200' Is take-off possible? No, visibility being below 1200 metres No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM

99 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between: 10H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

100 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of: 1.45 1.5 1.3 1.15

101 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than: 300 ft 250 ft 350 ft 200 ft

102 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft

103 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the: Temperature of the hydraulic fluid. Pressure of the hydraulic fluid. Temperature of the brakes. Pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

104 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a: Protection time up to 24 hours. Limited holdover time. Protection against icing for the duration of the flight. Limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

105 - Astronomic precession: Causes an apparent spin of heading gy ro to the left in the southern hemisphere Is zero at the South pole Is zero at the North pole Causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere

106 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip: Counter clockwise Clockwise From the upper side of the wing toward the underwing From the underwing toward the upper side of the wing

107 - A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: 2400 m 1600 m 3600 m 1500 m

108 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to: Put on the mask and goggles. Cut off all air conditioning units. Determine which system is causing the smoke. Begin an emergency descent.

109 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: Useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions Possible and recommended Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen

110 - A class A fire is a fire of: Liquid or liquefiable solid Electrical origin Solid material, generally of organic nature Metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

111 - In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH) 1, 2, 3. 1, 2, 4. 1, 4. 1, 3.

112 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 2 hours of its operation. 30 minutes of its operation. 25 hours of its operation. 20 hours of its operation.

113 - In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is: B D E C

114 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of: 60 kt. 40 kt. 20 kt. 80 kt.

115 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: The minimum equipment list. The OPS. The operations manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency Procedures'. The flight record.

116 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than: 10 % with ice 25 % with melted snow with a quantity equivalent to more than 5 mm of water 25 % with compacted snow 50 % with melted snow with a quantity equivalent to more than 1 mm of water

117 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to: Rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530) Rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace) The ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

118 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during: 2 hours with normal cruise consumption 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

119 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with: Owner of the aircraft. Aircraft producer. The national authority. Aircraft operator.

120 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for: A given flight from departure to destination Aircraft flying in MNPS airspace A period of 24 hours A period of 12 hours

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