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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
2 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
3 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
4 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an aeroplane at take-off:
5 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
6 - The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
7 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
8 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
9 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
10 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
11 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
12 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
13 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
14 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
15 - A windshield wiper, or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation, is required at each pilot station when operating an aeroplane with a:
16 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
17 - In current NAT operations, lateral separation is not represented by one fixed legacy value. It depends primarily on:
18 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
19 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
20 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
21 - The abbreviation NAT HLA means:
22 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
23 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
24 - The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
25 - Penetration into the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is:
26 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
27 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
28 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
29 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
30 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
31 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
32 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
33 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
34 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
35 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
36 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
37 - Once established on the NAT contingency parallel track offset by 5 NM, if the aircraft remains in the NAT level band, the vertical offset should normally be:
38 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
39 - The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
40 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m: The pilot may start the final approach...
41 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
42 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
43 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
44 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
45 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
46 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
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47 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends from:
48 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
49 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
50 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
51 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
52 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
53 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
54 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
55 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
56 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have NAT HLA operational approval has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
57 - Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the 'normal' position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
58 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally, at 30°W, between:
59 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
60 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
61 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
62 - From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
63 - In accordance with Air OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
64 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300', Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 m. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200'. Is take-off possible?
65 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
66 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
67 - What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)?:
68 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
69 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
70 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
71 - A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
72 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
73 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
74 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
75 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
76 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
77 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
78 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
79 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid?
80 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
81 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
82 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
83 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
84 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
85 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
86 - A commercial air transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
87 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
88 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
89 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
90 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
91 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
92 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
93 - A class B fire is a fire of:
94 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
95 - In accordance with Air OPS, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
96 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
97 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?
98 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
99 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
100 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
101 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
102 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
103 - For a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
104 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
105 - The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
106 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, carpet,...). 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (sodium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
107 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
108 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic,...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline,...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium,...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
109 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
110 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
111 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
112 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
113 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
114 - In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (Air OPS), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
115 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
116 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
117 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
118 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
119 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
120 - From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages. Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with current regulations for operating reasons:
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