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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
2 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
3 - The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
4 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
5 - The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
6 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
7 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m:Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m:The pilot may start the final approach ...
8 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
9 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
10 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
11 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
12 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
13 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
14 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
15 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
16 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
17 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
18 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
19 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
20 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
21 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
22 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
23 - On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane, with 2 or more engines, unless carrying additional life saving equipment, at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
24 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
25 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
26 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
27 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
28 - In accordance with OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
29 - Wind shear is:
30 - A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:
31 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point
32 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
33 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
34 - The abbreviation MNPS means:
35 - From the following list:1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons:
36 - In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
37 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
38 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
39 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
40 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
41 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
42 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
43 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
44 - The wake turbulence:
45 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
46 - JAR-OPS 1 requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
47 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
48 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
49 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
50 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
51 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
52 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
53 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
54 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
55 - In the 'worst case' scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
56 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
57 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
58 - A minimum time track is a:
59 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
60 - MNPS is the abbreviation for:
61 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
62 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
63 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
64 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
65 - During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
66 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
67 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take- off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
68 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
69 - A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
70 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
71 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC
72 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
73 - OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:
74 - Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is:
75 - At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
76 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
77 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
78 - Astronomic precession:
79 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
80 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
81 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with:
82 - OPS 1 applies to:
83 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
84 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
85 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
86 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
87 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
88 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
89 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
90 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
91 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
92 - When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
93 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
94 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
95 - During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC
96 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
97 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
98 - Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is defined within:
99 - The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:
100 - The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
101 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
102 - From the following list:1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
103 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by:
104 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
105 - An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
106 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid ?
107 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
108 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
109 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
110 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
111 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
112 - In compliance with PART-CAT and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:
113 - During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC
114 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
115 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
116 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
117 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
118 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
119 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided1 - during taxying 2 - during take-off 3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his stationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
120 - In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
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