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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
2 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
3 - OPS 1 applies to:
4 - In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:
5 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
6 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
7 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
8 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
9 - The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:
10 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
11 - While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must:
12 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
13 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
14 - During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:
15 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
16 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
17 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
18 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
19 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
20 - For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
21 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
22 - A class A fire is a fire of:
23 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
24 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
25 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
26 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
27 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
28 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
29 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
30 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
31 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
32 - In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
33 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
34 - The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
35 - According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
36 - From the following list:1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
37 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
38 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
39 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
40 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
41 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
42 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
43 - In public transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
44 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
45 - In accordance with IR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach without CDFA technique shall not be lower than:
46 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
47 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
48 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
49 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
50 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
51 - In accordance with OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
52 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?
53 - The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of:
54 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
55 - A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
56 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
57 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point
58 - In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
59 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
60 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
61 - As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird strike hazards by means of:1 - ATIS2 - NOTAMs3 - BIRDTAMs4 - Weather radar5 - The report by another crewThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
62 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
63 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
64 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
65 - The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces an increase in the:
66 - According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
67 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
68 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
69 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
70 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
71 - On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the 'true' orientation of the great circle linking point 62N 010E to point 66N 050W is 305. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is:
72 - The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
73 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
74 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
75 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
76 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
77 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
78 - In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
79 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
80 - What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)?:
81 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
82 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
83 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
84 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
85 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
86 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
87 - Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:
88 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language ?
89 - In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
90 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
91 - According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
92 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
93 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
94 - An aeroplane is operated at FL 330. 22 passenger are on board. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
95 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
96 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
97 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
98 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:
99 - In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:
100 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
101 - Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?
102 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
103 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
104 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
105 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
106 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
107 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
108 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
109 - On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
110 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
111 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
112 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
113 - The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
114 - In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:
115 - On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane, with 2 or more engines, unless carrying additional life saving equipment, at a distance away from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
116 - Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the 'normal' position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
117 - The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to OPS 1 depends on the approved number of:
118 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
119 - The wake turbulence:
120 - The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are:DH = 300'Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 mThe weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200' Is take-off possible?
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