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Exam simulation Operational Procedures - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - An aircraft flies a VOR / DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360', horizontal visibility = 1500 m: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2500 m: The pilot may start the final approach...
2 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
3 - At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:
4 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
5 - Under EASA Air OPS / Part-CAT, which of the following are included in the aerodrome operating minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR; 2 - the ceiling; 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH); 4 - the decision height (DH)
6 - According to current commercial air transport rules, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
7 - North Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) is defined within:
8 - For an operation in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
9 - Under EASA Air OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
10 - Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
11 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
12 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft?
13 - In accordance with Part-CAT 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1.3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:
14 - A pilot whose aircraft does not have NAT HLA operational approval has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:
15 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
16 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
17 - A commercial air transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
18 - During a flight to Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC. You will normally be:
19 - The climb or descent through NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) of a non approved for NAT HLA aircraft:
20 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
21 - Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
22 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
23 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
24 - Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
25 - For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
26 - The minimum equipment list of a commercial air transport aircraft is to be found in the:
27 - The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:
28 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
29 - If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
30 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
31 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
32 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
33 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
34 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
35 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
36 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
37 - A minimum time track is a:
38 - During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than:
39 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
40 - When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:
41 - The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
42 - For aerodrome operating minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures are not lower than the following MDH values:
43 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
44 - If it exists, the MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
45 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
46 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
47 - According to the recommended 'noise abatement take-off and climb procedure' NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
48 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
49 - In accordance with Part-CAT (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
50 - In the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
51 - An aircraft above FL 410 in the NAT region cannot continue in accordance with its clearance and cannot obtain a revised clearance. After establishing the 5 NM contingency offset, the vertical offset from normally used flight levels should be:
52 - A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are:
53 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires; 2 - class B fires; 3 - fires with an electrical origin; 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
54 - During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
55 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
56 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
57 - Arriving at the point of entry into NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:
58 - Astronomic precession is:
59 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
60 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
61 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
62 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
63 - Minimum time route is a route calculated for:
64 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided: 1 - during taxying. 2 - during take-off. 3 - during landing. 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
65 - For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
66 - In the Airspace where the NAT HLA is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is:
67 - In the Air OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
68 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O. 2 - CO2. 3 - dry-chemical. 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
69 - When RVSM is applied in NAT HLA between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive, the vertical separation minimum is:
70 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
71 - Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
72 - A runway is considered damp when:
73 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
74 - In commercial air transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
75 - Without wind, the tip vortices created by an aeroplane at take-off:
76 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
77 - The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
78 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
79 - According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
80 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
81 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
82 - In accordance with Air OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:
83 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
84 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
85 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
86 - For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:
87 - From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests:
88 - Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
89 - A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
90 - In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
91 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
92 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
93 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
94 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
95 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
96 - The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the holdover time:
97 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for an individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least:
98 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
99 - Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
100 - A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
101 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
102 - A windshield wiper, or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation, is required at each pilot station when operating an aeroplane with a:
103 - During a flight from Europe scheduled in NAT HLA, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC. You will normally be:
104 - For a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
105 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
106 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
107 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
108 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
109 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
110 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
111 - From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages. Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with current regulations for operating reasons:
112 - A piece of equipment on your commercial air transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
113 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
114 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
115 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a:
116 - In accordance with the PART-CAT, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with:
117 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
118 - For a commercial transport aeroplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass (MTOM) of more than 27,000 kg and issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) on or after 1 January 2021, the minimum recording duration of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) shall be:
119 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
120 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
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