Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
lingua EN angle-down

Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject New Test

1 - When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according to DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:
2 - At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
3 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
4 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
5 - What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
6 - In accordance with OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
7 - A Category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
8 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
9 - In public transport aeroplane, prior to commercial air transportation operations, the commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions unless:
10 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
11 - During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC
12 - The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be:
13 - When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:
14 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
15 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
16 - According to the JAR OPS 1, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
17 - combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
18 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically:
19 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
20 - Wind shear is:
21 - You would use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
22 - After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
23 - The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
24 - On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
25 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
26 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
27 - In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
28 - In accordance with IR-OPS (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for 'non-precision approach procedures', which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), MLS, GLS, VOR/DME, NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
29 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
30 - Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is defined within:
31 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
32 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
33 - Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:
34 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
35 - For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
36 - In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:
37 - The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
38 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
39 - The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halonWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
40 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
41 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
42 - The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located on the left side is:
43 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided1 - during taxying 2 - during take-off 3 - during landing4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his stationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
44 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
45 - The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)
question op1.webp
46 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by:
47 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
48 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:
49 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
50 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
51 - In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
52 - If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:
53 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
54 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
55 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
56 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
57 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
58 - The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:
59 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
60 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
61 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
62 - The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
63 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
64 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
65 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
66 - In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
67 - Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:
68 - Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with OPS 1 Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
69 - For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
70 - The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data:
71 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
72 - If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
73 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
74 - The wake turbulence:
75 - The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
76 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
77 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 KT to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
78 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
79 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
80 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
81 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
82 - A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:
83 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
84 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
85 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
86 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
87 - In accordance with OPS 1, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
88 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
89 - OPS 1 applies to:
90 - Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
91 - In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
92 - In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
93 - For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
94 - Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
95 - A class B fire is a fire of:
96 - An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?
97 - In accordance with OPS1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category IIIB approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than:
98 - If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
99 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
100 - According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:
101 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
102 - All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than:
103 - After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fire personnel should approach the landing gear tyres:
104 - One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
105 - CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - fires with an electrical origin4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productsWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
106 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
107 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid ?
108 - A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
109 - According to JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:
110 - In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
111 - An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:
112 - During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
113 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
114 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
115 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
116 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
117 - For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
118 - What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked)?:
119 - You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore.The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is:
120 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
Change Subject New Test
Download mobile apps
Download mobile apps
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free

QuizVds.it - Facebook - Contact Us - Donation - Cookie Policy - Privacy Policy - Terms and Conditions - Partner