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Exam simulation Operational Procedures ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Operational Procedures 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
2 - You plan to fly from point A (60N 010E) to point B (60N 020E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1 h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
3 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
4 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
5 - During a flight to Europe, planned in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:
6 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
7 - During the flight of two aircraft in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:
8 - A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire. 2. a hydrocarbon fire. 3. a fabric fire. 4. an electrical fire. 5. a wood fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
9 - In accordance with Air OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
10 - As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
11 - Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
12 - For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
13 - An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:
14 - The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
15 - If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
16 - A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be:
17 - A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...). 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (sodium, ...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
18 - The minimum visibility required to commence a special VFR flight is:
19 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
20 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
21 - A class B fire is a fire of:
22 - During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
23 - The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
24 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
25 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
26 - Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
27 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
28 - A runway is considered damp when:
29 - In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
30 - To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you would use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher. 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher. 3. a halon fire-extinguisher. 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
31 - The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:
32 - When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
33 - To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
34 - The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
35 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:
36 - On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
37 - Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language ?
38 - A runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
39 - To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1 h 45 min flight on one engine at an airspeed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air), a pilot has to choose an ATC route in North Atlantic high-level airspace while also taking the shortest possible time. Given that the three alternate aerodromes considered are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA and ST JOHN'S TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
40 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
41 - The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take-off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take-off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be:
42 - For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
43 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
44 - When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
45 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
46 - DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
47 - For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:
48 - The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
49 - The number of hand fire extinguishers to be installed in the passenger cabin depends on the approved number of:
50 - For operator aerodrome operating minima, the lowest circling minima typically used by an operator in a Category B aeroplane are:
51 - The term Decision Height (DH) is used for:
52 - On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
53 - A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
54 - In accordance with Part-CAT, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless:
55 - If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
56 - A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to:
57 - In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
58 - An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
59 - Using passenger oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
60 - A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:
61 - The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
62 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
63 - When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
64 - Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
question op2.webp
65 - An aircraft operating within NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if:
66 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
67 - On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:
68 - The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:
69 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
70 - A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a fabric fire; 3. an electric fire; 4. a wood fire; 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
71 - When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is:
72 - A minimum time track is a:
73 - Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last:
74 - For planning an IFR flight without a destination alternate aerodrome, VMC conditions must be forecast to remain effective for at least:
75 - Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:
76 - ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:
77 - An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
78 - In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided: 1 - during taxying. 2 - during take-off. 3 - during landing. 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
79 - For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
80 - Air OPS requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:
81 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
82 - If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
83 - The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data:
84 - In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
85 - According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
86 - Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:
87 - NAT HLA is the abbreviation for:
88 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
89 - An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
90 - In accordance with Air OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:
91 - In accordance with Air OPS and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
92 - Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
93 - In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
94 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
95 - When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:
96 - The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
97 - The validity period of a day-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally, at 30°W, between:
98 - The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with:
99 - During a flight from Europe, scheduled in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace), you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC
100 - Wind shear is:
101 - Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
102 - Wake turbulence risk is highest:
103 - A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
104 - You would use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...). 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...). 3 - gas. 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
105 - In accordance with the regulations, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
106 - You would use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire; 2. a plastic fire; 3. a hydrocarbon fire; 4. an electrical fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
107 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
108 - In accordance with Part-CAT, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
109 - The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
110 - Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
111 - An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
112 - The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to:
113 - The NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) extends vertically between flight levels:
114 - According to the EASA-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within:
115 - The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
116 - During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:
117 - Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is:
118 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
119 - In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
120 - The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
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