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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
2 - Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
3 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
4 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
5 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
6 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
7 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
8 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
9 - The optimum altitude:
10 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
11 - Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
12 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
13 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
14 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
15 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
16 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
17 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
18 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
19 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
20 - VX is:
21 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
22 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
23 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
24 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
25 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
26 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
27 - V1 has to be:
28 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
29 - During take-off the third segment begins:
30 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
31 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
32 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
33 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
34 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
35 - The speed V2 is:
36 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
37 - Which of the following answers is true?
38 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
39 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
40 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
41 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
42 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
43 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
44 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
45 - The take-off distance available is:
46 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
47 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
48 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
49 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
50 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
51 - A head wind will:
52 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
53 - Density Altitude:
54 - Which of the following statements is correct?
55 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
56 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
57 - Long range cruise is selected as
58 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
59 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
60 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
61 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: -10°CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY: 30LWind: 180°/10 KTTake off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installedOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
62 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
63 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
64 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
65 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
66 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
67 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
68 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
69 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
70 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
71 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
72 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
73 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
74 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
75 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
76 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
77 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
78 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
79 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
80 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
81 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
82 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
83 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
84 - What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
85 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
86 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
87 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
88 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
89 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
90 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
91 - The rate of climb:
92 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
93 - Density altitude is the:
94 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
95 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
96 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
97 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
98 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
99 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
100 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
101 - The drift down requirements are based on:
102 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
103 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
104 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
105 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
106 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
107 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
108 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
109 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
110 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
111 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
112 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
113 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
114 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
115 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
116 - Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the 'Buffet Onset Boundary' graph?
117 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
118 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
119 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
120 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
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