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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
2 - The speed V1 is defined as:
3 - The rate of climb:
4 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
5 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
6 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
7 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
8 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
9 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
10 - The drift down requirements are based on:
11 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
12 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
13 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
14 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
15 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
16 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
17 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
18 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
19 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by Vmca:
20 - Density altitude is the:
21 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
22 - Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
23 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
24 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
25 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
26 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
27 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
28 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
29 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
30 - Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
31 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
32 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
33 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
34 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
35 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects)
36 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
37 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
38 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
39 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
40 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
41 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
42 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
43 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
44 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
45 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
46 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
47 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
48 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
49 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
50 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
51 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
52 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
53 - Which statement is correct?
54 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
55 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
56 - The optimum altitude:
57 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
58 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
59 - What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
60 - Density Altitude:
61 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
62 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
63 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
64 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
65 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
66 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
67 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
68 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
69 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
70 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
71 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
72 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
73 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
74 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
75 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
76 - A constant headwind:
77 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
78 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
79 - V1 has to be:
80 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
81 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
82 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
83 - The speed for maximum endurance
84 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
85 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
86 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
87 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
88 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
89 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
90 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: -10°CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY: 30LWind: 180°/10 KTTake off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installedOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
91 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
92 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
93 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
94 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
95 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
96 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
97 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
98 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
99 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
100 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
101 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
102 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
103 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
104 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
105 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
106 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
107 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
108 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
109 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
110 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
111 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
112 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
113 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
114 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
115 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
116 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
117 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude.Using the following corrections:'± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation''± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice''- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C
118 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
119 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
120 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
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