Test 120 exam questions on Performance for ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

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1 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)? Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag) / Weight) x 100 Climb Gradient = (Lift / Weight) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass) / Lift) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag) / Lift) x 100

2 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: A specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed A specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed An IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range A 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range

3 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of: The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage Rate of climb to true airspeed True airspeed to rate of climb The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage

4 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?

1950 ft 1420 ft 1600 ft 1700 ft

5 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance? 2243 m 2096 m 2009 m 1950 m

6 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:

Maximum specific range Critical angle of attack Maximum thrust Maximum endurance

7 - The speed V2 is: The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems That speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure The lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure The take-off safety speed

8 - Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes

9 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? Allowable take-off mass increases There is no effect on allowable take-off mass Allowable take-off mass decreases Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000' pressure altitude

10 - The drift down requirements are based on: The obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed The landing mass limit at the alternate The maximum flight path gradient during the descent The actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure

11 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant): Does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb Has no effect on rate of climb Decreases angle and rate of climb Improves angle and rate of climb

12 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment? There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500' The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied

13 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? VMU VLOF VR VMCG

14 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? A high runway elevation and tail wind A low runway elevation and a head wind A high runway elevation and a head wind A low runway elevation and a cross wind

15 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration: 23% 10% 20% 15%

16 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would: Have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off Increase the required take-off distance Increase the maximum mass for take-off Decrease the maximum mass for take-off

17 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? VMCG, V1, VR, V2 V1, VR, V2, VMCA V1, VR, VMCG, V2 V1, VMCG, VR, V2

18 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than: 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50' height 1.2 VMCA 1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.3 for turboprop powered aeroplanes VSRO and must be maintained down to 35' height

19 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by The climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration. The climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. The climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up. The climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.

20 - A head wind will: Increase the angle of climb Increase the rate of climb Increase the climb flight path angle Shorten the time of climb

21 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance? High temperature and high relative humidity Low temperature and low relative humidity High temperature and low relative humidity Low temperature and high relative humidity

22 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? It will increase the take-off distance available It will decrease the take-off distance It will decrease the take-off run It will increase the take-off distance

23 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reactiontime of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt withinthe (iii) ......... (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available

24 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to: 1.2 Vs The maximum CL/CD2 ratio 1.1 Vs The maximum CL/CD ratio

25 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. No difference. Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.

26 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship? V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCA VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR

27 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

28 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? V2 + 10 KT The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum V2 The speed for maximum rate of climb

29 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will: Remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant. Increase, because the lift coefficient increases. Increase, because the lift coefficient decreases. Decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.

30 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? It will decrease the take-off distance required It will increase the accelerate stop distance It will increase the take-off ground run It will increase the take-off distance required

31 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are: 1, 4, 5, 10 2, 3, 6, 9 1, 5, 8, 10 1, 4, 6, 9

32 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about: 5° 3% 8% 3°

33 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin Is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling. Is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. Is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes. Is dependent on the OAT.

34 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass: The airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased The airspeed and the drag will be increased The airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change The lift / drag ratio must be increased

35 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component: Increases the climb time Increases the amount of fuel for the climb Decreases the climb time Decreases the ground distance flown during that climb

36 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass: Increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed Increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density Is independent of altitude Decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density

37 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? No effect The IAS will be decreased The IAS will be increased Tailwind only effects holding speed

38 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance In the accelerate stop distance available In the take-off run available In the all-engine take-off distance

39 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude.Using the following corrections:'± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation''± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice''- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is: 4.7 % 4.3 % 4.9 %

40 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'? At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited[see Annex]

41 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: Use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed. Use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique. Make a 'positive' landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. Postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

42 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by: Selecting a lower V2 Selecting a lower V1 Selecting a lower VR A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2

43 - Which of the following answers is true? V1 is higher VLOF V1 is lower or equal to VR V1 is lower VMCG V1 is higher VR

44 - The take-off distance available is: The runway length plus half of the clearway The runway length minus stopway The total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available

45 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: Is always equal to the powerplant ceiling Is independent of the aeroplane mass Increases when the aeroplane mass decreases Is only dependent on the outside air temperature

46 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: Improved Unchanged Degraded Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

47 - Which statement is correct? The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used

48 - Long range cruise is selected as The climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative. The speed for best economy. Specific range with tailwind. The higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

49 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component: Increases the best rate of climb Decreases the angle of climb Increases the angle of flight path during climb Increases the maximum endurance

50 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is: The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases. The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass. The specific range and the optimum altitude increases. The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

51 - Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: 4044 kg / h 3365 kg / h 3804 kg / h 3578 kg / h

52 - The induced drag of an aeroplane: Decreases with increasing gross weight Is independent of the airspeed Decreases with increasing airspeed Increases with increasing airspeed

53 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio Increases / increases / decreases Increases / constant / increases Increases / increases / constant Decreases / constant / decreases

54 - Which of the following will decrease V1? Increased take-off mass Inoperative anti-skid Increased outside air temperature Inoperative flight management system

55 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: Lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag Equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

56 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires: Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift A higher coefficient of lift More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift

57 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? Both will remain the same Both will decrease Both will increase Vx will decrease and Vy will increase

58 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'? Longest flight duration Minimum fuel flow Minimum drag Minimum specific fuel consumption

59 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is: Less then that required at an alternate airport. More than that required at an alternate airport. The same as that required at an alternate airport. 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport

60 - The speed V1 is defined as: Take-off climb speed Speed for best angle of climb Take-off decision speed Engine failure speed

61 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 1.2Vs The speed for maximum climb angle Vx The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP The speed for maximum rate of climb

62 - Uphill slope: Decreases the accelerate stop distance only Increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance Increases the allowed take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance only

63 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1: A height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance The take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF The take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR The take-off must be continued

64 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed? ETOPS. Emergency Descent Procedure. Long Range Cruise Descent. Drift Down Procedure.

65 - Field length is balanced when: Calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1 Take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal All engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal

66 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would: Decrease the maximum mass for take-off Increase the maximum mass for take-off Decrease the required take-off distance Have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off

67 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: An increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

68 - The speed for maximum endurance Is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range. Can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. Is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

69 - During take-off the third segment begins: When landing gear is fully retracted When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started When flap retraction is completed When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2

70 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass) The drag decreases The drag increases considerably The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter The drag remains almost constant

71 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway) 115/100 1.67 0.60 60/115

72 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than: 1.13 Vsr 1.15 Vsr 1.15 Vs1 1.2 Vs

73 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop. Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length. Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.

74 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight The aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained. The aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained. The aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained. The aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.

75 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: The lift-off point The point where V2 is reached The middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point The point half way between V1 and V2

76 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: 69000 kg / 15 deg 67700 kg / 15 deg 69700 kg / 25 deg 72200 kg / 5 deg

77 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt

3100 m. 2900 m. 2700 m. 2600 m.

78 - Density altitude is the: Altitude read directly from the altimeter Altitude reference to the standard datum plane Height above the surface Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

79 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb: VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude VX is always below VY VY is always above VMO VX is always above VY

80 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at: 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases 5°, both limitations are increased 20°, both limitations are increased 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

81 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as: Take-off decision speed Lift off speed Critical engine failure speed Take-off climb speed or speed at 35'

82 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: The minimum power required The maximum lift The minimum angle of descent The critical Mach number

83 - If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: Not be affected Increase in the flaps extended case Decrease Increase

84 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min: VMCG, V2 VSR, VMCA V1, VR VLOF, VMC

85 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: All engines operating only One engine inoperative only Failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance Failure of the critical engine only

86 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? Increase of aircraft mass Decrease of aircraft mass Tailwind Headwind

87 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.) Configuration and angle of attack Configuration and mass Altitude and configuration Mass and altitude

88 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within: 2609 m 1800 m 2 070 m 1565 m

89 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: V1 in KT TAS VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR VLOF in terms of ground speed V1 in KT ground speed

90 - Below the optimum cruise altitude: The IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude The TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude The Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude The Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude

91 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The clearway does not equal the stopway The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance

92 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached: At the optimum cruise altitude At the lowest possible altitude At the practical ceiling At the service ceiling

93 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'? The increment represents fuel used before engine failure The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures[see Annex]

94 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose: The long range speed The speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2 The speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio The speed at the maximum lift

95 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane In accelerated level flight. In descent with constant IAS. In unaccelerated climb. In unaccelerated level flight.

96 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct? V1 must not exceed VMCG V1 must not exceed VR The V1 correction for up-slope is negative When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines

97 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run? 2, 4, 5 and 7 1, 4, 6 and 8 2, 3, 6 and 7 1, 3, 5 and 8

98 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: The runway is wet It is dark The OAT is ISA +10°C Anti-skid is not usable

99 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370? Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level[see Annex]

100 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine Are independent of outside air temperature (OAT). Increase with increasing altitude. Increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. Decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

101 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT): Increases the climb limited take-off mass Increases the field length limited take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance Decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass

102 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant: Both will stay constant regardless of altitude Both will decrease with increasing altitude TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude Both will increase with increasing altitude

103 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1 The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM

104 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet Can be reduced by increasing the load factor. Limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes. Has to be considered at take-off and landing. Exists only above MMO.

105 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is: 101596 kg 209064 kg 74064 kg 286781 kg

106 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature: Increases the climb limited take-off mass Decreases the take-off distance Has no influence on the allowed take-off mass Decreases the field length limited take-off mass

107 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag: A lower speed requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane cannot be controlled manually. A higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

108 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1: The take-off must be rejected The take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1 The take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available The take-off may be continued if a clearway is available

109 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?

1670 ft 2000 ft 1780 ft 2150 ft

110 - The optimum altitude: Decreases as mass decreases Increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum Is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained Is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum

111 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.

1250 ft 1750 ft 1950 ft 1550 ft

112 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? High mass Low mass Tailwind Headwind

113 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass The minimum drag is independent of the aircraft mass The minimum drag is a function of the density altitude The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude

114 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1 A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude

115 - VX is: The speed for best rate of climb The speed for best angle of climb The speed for best angle of flight path The speed for best specific range

116 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: Increase Increase at first and decrease later on Decrease Remain constant

117 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: Manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative. Minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. Obstacle clearance in the approach area. Manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

118 - What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? The time to climb increases The time to climb decreases The time to climb does not change The effect on the time to climb will depend on the helicopter type

119 - The optimum cruise altitude increases If the temperature (OAT) is increased. If the tailwind component is decreased. If the aeroplane mass is decreased. If the aeroplane mass is increased.

120 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of: 11.7 kg / NM 14 kg / NM 10.7 kg / NM 8.17 kg / NM

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