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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
2 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
3 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
4 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
5 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
6 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
7 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
8 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
9 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
10 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
11 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
12 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
13 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
14 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
15 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
16 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
17 - The speed V1 is defined as:
18 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
19 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
20 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
21 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
22 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
23 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
24 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
25 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
26 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
27 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
28 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
29 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
30 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
31 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
32 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
33 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
34 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
35 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
36 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
37 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
38 - Which statement is correct?
39 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
40 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
41 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
42 - With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0'?
43 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
44 - Density Altitude:
45 - The take-off distance available is:
46 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
47 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
48 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
49 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
50 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
51 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
52 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
53 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
54 - If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
55 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by Vmca:
56 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
57 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
58 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
59 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
60 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
61 - The speed V2 is:
62 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
63 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
64 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
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65 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
66 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
67 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
68 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
69 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
70 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
71 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
72 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
73 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
74 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
75 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
76 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
77 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
78 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
79 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
80 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
81 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
82 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
83 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
84 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
85 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
86 - The speed for maximum endurance
87 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
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88 - V1 has to be:
89 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
90 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
91 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
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92 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
93 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
94 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
95 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
96 - A constant headwind:
97 - Which of the following answers is true?
98 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
99 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
100 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
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101 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
102 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
103 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
104 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects)
105 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
106 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
107 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
108 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
109 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
110 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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111 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
112 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
113 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
114 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
115 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
116 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
117 - The rate of climb:
118 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
119 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
120 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
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