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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
2 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
3 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
4 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
5 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
6 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
7 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
8 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
9 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
10 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
11 - The speed V1 is defined as:
12 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
13 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
14 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
15 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
16 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
17 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
18 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
19 - In twin-jet take-off performance, why can the climb-limit mass curve have a kink at about 30°C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
20 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
21 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
22 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
23 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
24 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
25 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
26 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
27 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
28 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
29 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
30 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
31 - Uphill slope:
32 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
33 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
34 - VX is:
35 - The take-off distance available is:
36 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
37 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
38 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
39 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
40 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
41 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
42 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
43 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
44 - Density Altitude:
45 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
46 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
47 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
48 - A constant headwind:
49 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
50 - Field length is balanced when:
51 - The rate of climb:
52 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
53 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
54 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
55 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
56 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
57 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
58 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
59 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
60 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
61 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
62 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
63 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
64 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
65 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
66 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
67 - Long range cruise is selected as
68 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
69 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
70 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
71 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
72 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
73 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
74 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
75 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
76 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
77 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
78 - V1 has to be:
79 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
80 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
81 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
82 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
83 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
84 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
85 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
86 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
87 - The speed for maximum endurance
88 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
89 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
90 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
91 - The optimum altitude:
92 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
93 - Which of the following answers is true?
94 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
95 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
96 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
97 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
98 - During take-off the third segment begins:
99 - The drift down requirements are based on:
100 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: -3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1; -2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
101 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
102 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
103 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
104 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
105 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
106 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
107 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
108 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
109 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
110 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
111 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
112 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
113 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
114 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
115 - A headwind will:
116 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
117 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
118 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
119 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
120 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
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