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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY: 30L; Wind: 180°/10 KT; take-off Mass: 4600 lbs. Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
2 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
3 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
4 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
5 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
6 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
7 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
8 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
9 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
10 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
11 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
12 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
13 - Field length is balanced when:
14 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
15 - A headwind will:
16 - A constant headwind:
17 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
18 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
19 - The optimum altitude:
20 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
21 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
22 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
23 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
24 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
25 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
26 - During take-off the third segment begins:
27 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
28 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
29 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
30 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
31 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
32 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
33 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
34 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
35 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
36 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
37 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
38 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
39 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
40 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
41 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
42 - The drift down requirements are based on:
43 - The speed V2 is:
44 - Which of the following statements is correct?
45 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
46 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
47 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
48 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
49 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
50 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
51 - Which statement is correct?
52 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
53 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
54 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
55 - Uphill slope:
56 - Density altitude is the:
57 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
58 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
59 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
60 - Density Altitude:
61 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
62 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
63 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
64 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
65 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
66 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
67 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
68 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
69 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
70 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
71 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
72 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
73 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
74 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
75 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
76 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
77 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
78 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
79 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
80 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
81 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
82 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
83 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5270 kg - obstacle limit: 4630 kg. Estimated take-off mass is 5000 kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
84 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
85 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
86 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
87 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
88 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
89 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
90 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
91 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
92 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
93 - The speed V1 is defined as:
94 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
95 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
96 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
97 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
98 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
99 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
100 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
101 - The rate of climb:
102 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
103 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
104 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
105 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY: 24L; Wind: 310°/20kt; take-off Mass: 4400 lbs. Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
106 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
107 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
108 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
109 - VX is:
110 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
question perf6.webp
111 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
112 - Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the 'Buffet Onset Boundary' graph?
113 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
114 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
115 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
116 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
117 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
118 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
119 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
120 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
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