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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
2 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
3 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
4 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
5 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
6 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
7 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
8 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
9 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
10 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
11 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
12 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
13 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
14 - Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
15 - Field length is balanced when:
16 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
17 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
18 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
19 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
20 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
21 - Uphill slope:
22 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
23 - The speed for maximum endurance
24 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
25 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
26 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
27 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
28 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
29 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
30 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
31 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
32 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
33 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
34 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
35 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
36 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
37 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
38 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
39 - Which of the following statements is correct?
40 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
41 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
42 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
43 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
44 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
45 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
46 - Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the 'Buffet Onset Boundary' graph?
47 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
48 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
49 - A constant headwind:
50 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
51 - The drift down requirements are based on:
52 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
53 - The take-off distance available is:
54 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
55 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
56 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
57 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
58 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
59 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
60 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
61 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
62 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
63 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
64 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
65 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
66 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
67 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
68 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s 2)
69 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
70 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
71 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
72 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
73 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
74 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
75 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
76 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
77 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
78 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
79 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
80 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
81 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
82 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
83 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects)
84 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
85 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
86 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
87 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
88 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
89 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
90 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
91 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
92 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
93 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
94 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
95 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
96 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
97 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
98 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
99 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
100 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
101 - The speed V2 is:
102 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
103 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
104 - VX is:
105 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
106 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
107 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
108 - Which of the following answers is true?
109 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
110 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
111 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
112 - A head wind will:
113 - V1 has to be:
114 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
115 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
116 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
117 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
118 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
119 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by Vmca:
120 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
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