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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
2 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
3 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
4 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
5 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
6 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
7 - Field length is balanced when:
8 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
9 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
10 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g = 10 m/s²)
11 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
12 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
13 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
14 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
15 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
16 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
17 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
18 - The optimum altitude:
19 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
20 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
21 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
22 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
23 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
24 - The speed V2 is:
25 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
26 - A constant headwind:
27 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
28 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
29 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
30 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
31 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
32 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
33 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
34 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
35 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
36 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
37 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
38 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
39 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
40 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
41 - The speed for maximum endurance
42 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
43 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
44 - In twin-jet take-off performance, why can the climb-limit mass curve have a kink at about 30°C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
45 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
46 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
47 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
48 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
49 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
50 - The rate of climb:
51 - In relation to take-off mass limitations, which statement is correct?
52 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
53 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
54 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
55 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
56 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
57 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
58 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
59 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
60 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
61 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
62 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
63 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
64 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
65 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
66 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
67 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: -3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1; -2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
68 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
69 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
70 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
71 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
72 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
73 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
74 - A headwind will:
75 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
76 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
77 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
78 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
79 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
80 - During take-off the third segment begins:
81 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
82 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
83 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
84 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
85 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
86 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
87 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
88 - Density altitude is the:
89 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
90 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
91 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
92 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
93 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
94 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
95 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
96 - The take-off distance available is:
97 - Uphill slope:
98 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
99 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
100 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
101 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
102 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
103 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
104 - Which of the following answers is true?
105 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
106 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
107 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
108 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
109 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
110 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
111 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
112 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
113 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
114 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
115 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
116 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
117 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
118 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
119 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
120 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
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