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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
2 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
3 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
4 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
5 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
6 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
7 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
8 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
9 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
10 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
11 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
12 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
13 - Long range cruise is selected as
14 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
15 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
16 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
17 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
18 - The optimum altitude:
19 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
20 - The drift down requirements are based on:
21 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
22 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
23 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
24 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
25 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects)
26 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
27 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
28 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
29 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
30 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
31 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
32 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
33 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
34 - On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:
35 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
36 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
37 - The take-off distance available is:
38 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
39 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
40 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
41 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
42 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
43 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
44 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
45 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
46 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
47 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
48 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
49 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance.The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
50 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
51 - The speed V2 is:
52 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
53 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
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54 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
55 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
56 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
57 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
58 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
59 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
60 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
61 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
62 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
63 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
64 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
65 - The rate of climb:
66 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
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67 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
68 - VX is:
69 - If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
70 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
71 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
72 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
73 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
74 - Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
75 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
76 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
77 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
78 - A head wind will:
79 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
80 - A constant headwind:
81 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT -15 °CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY 12RWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 4000 lbs Runway Surface: tarred and dryWhat is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
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82 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
83 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
84 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
85 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
86 - What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
87 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
88 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
89 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
90 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
91 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
92 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
93 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
94 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 715002nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800Wind correction:Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KTGiven that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
95 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
96 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
97 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
98 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
99 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
100 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
101 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
102 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
103 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
104 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
105 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
106 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
107 - With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
108 - The speed for maximum endurance
109 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
110 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
111 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
112 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
113 - Which of the following statements is correct?
114 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
115 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
116 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
117 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
118 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
119 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
120 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
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