1 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
2 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
3 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
4 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
5 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
6 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
7 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28.What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
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8 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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9 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
10 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
11 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
12 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
13 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
14 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
15 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
16 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
17 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct?(no compressibility effects)
18 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
19 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
20 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
21 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
22 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
23 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
24 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
25 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
26 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
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27 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
28 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
29 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
30 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
31 - The rate of climb:
32 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
33 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
34 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude.Using the following corrections:'± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation''± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice''- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C
35 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
36 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
37 - Long range cruise is selected as
38 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
39 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
40 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
41 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
42 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
43 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
44 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
45 - During take-off the third segment begins:
46 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
47 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
48 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
49 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
50 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
51 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
52 - If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
53 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
54 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
55 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited takeoff mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
56 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
57 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
58 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
59 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
60 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
61 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
62 - Density altitude is the:
63 - The speed for maximum endurance
64 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
65 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
66 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
67 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
68 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
69 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
70 - The speed V1 is defined as:
71 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
72 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
73 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
74 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
75 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
76 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
77 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
78 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
79 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
80 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
81 - The drift down requirements are based on:
82 - The take-off distance available is:
83 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
84 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
85 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
86 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
87 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
88 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s 2)
89 - What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
90 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
91 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
92 - Density Altitude:
93 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
94 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
95 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
96 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
97 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
98 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
99 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
100 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
101 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
102 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
103 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
104 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
105 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
106 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
107 - The optimum altitude:
108 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
109 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
110 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
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111 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
112 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
113 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
114 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V12555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
115 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
116 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
117 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: -10°CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY: 30LWind: 180°/10 KTTake off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installedOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
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118 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
119 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
120 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of: