Skip to content

Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
2 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
3 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
4 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
5 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
6 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
7 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
8 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
9 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
10 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
11 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
12 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
13 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
14 - A headwind will:
15 - Which of the following answers is true?
16 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
17 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
18 - Density altitude is the:
19 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
20 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
21 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
22 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
23 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
24 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
25 - The speed V2 is:
26 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
27 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
28 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
29 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
30 - V1 has to be:
31 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
32 - VX is:
33 - A constant headwind:
34 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
35 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
36 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
37 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
38 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
39 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
40 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
41 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
42 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
question perf6.webp
43 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
44 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
45 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
46 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
47 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
48 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
49 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
50 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
51 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
52 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
53 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
54 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
55 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: -3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1; -2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
56 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
57 - Which data can be extracted from buffet onset boundary data?
58 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
59 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
60 - Long range cruise is selected as
61 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
62 - The speed for maximum endurance
63 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
64 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
65 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
66 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
67 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
68 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
69 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
70 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
71 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
72 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
73 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
74 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
75 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
76 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
77 - In twin-jet take-off performance, why can the climb-limit mass curve have a kink at about 30°C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
78 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
79 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
80 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
81 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
82 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
83 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
84 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
85 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
86 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
87 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
88 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
89 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
90 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
91 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
92 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
93 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
94 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
95 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
96 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
97 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
98 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
99 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
100 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
101 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
102 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
103 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
104 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
105 - What is the result of a large take-off flap setting compared to a small take-off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
106 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
107 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
108 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
109 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
110 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
111 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
112 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
113 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
114 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
115 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
116 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
117 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
118 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
119 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
120 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component: