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Exam simulation Performance ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The take-off distance available is:
2 - The speed V1 is defined as:
3 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are:
4 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
5 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
6 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
7 - Field length is balanced when:
8 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
9 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
10 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
11 - The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density4 decreasing density5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitudeWhich parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
12 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
13 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
14 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
15 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
16 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
17 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
18 - Uphill slope:
19 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
20 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude.Using the following corrections:'± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation''± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice''- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C
21 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
22 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
23 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
24 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
25 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
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26 - The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
27 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
28 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
29 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
30 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
31 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
32 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
33 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
34 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
35 - Which of the following statements is correct?
36 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
37 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
38 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
39 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dryWind:Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
40 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
41 - Which statement is correct?
42 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
43 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
44 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
45 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000' RWY, 12LWind· 080/12 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
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46 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class
47 - Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given:OAT 24 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY 30RWind· 060/04 KTTake-off Mass: 3800 lbsOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
48 - Density Altitude:
49 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
50 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
51 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
52 - The speed for maximum endurance
53 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
54 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
55 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
56 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
57 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
58 - According to CS 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
59 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
60 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
61 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
62 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
63 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
64 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
65 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2Drag = 72569 NMinimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
66 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
67 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass)
68 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
69 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
70 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
71 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed.Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
72 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
73 - The drift down requirements are based on:
74 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
75 - When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
76 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
77 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
78 - In accordance to CS 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
79 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
80 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
81 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
82 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
83 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
84 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
85 - At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: -10°CPressure Altitude: 4000' RWY: 30LWind: 180°/10 KTTake off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installedOther conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
86 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
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87 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
88 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
89 - The optimum altitude:
90 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
91 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
92 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
93 - VX is:
94 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
95 - A constant headwind:
96 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
97 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
98 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
99 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual.The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
100 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
101 - What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
102 - At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given:OAT: 25°CPressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24LWind: 310°/20ktsTake off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?
103 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
104 - If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
105 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
106 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
107 - Density altitude is the:
108 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
109 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
110 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
111 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
112 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
113 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370?
114 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
115 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
116 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
117 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
118 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
119 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
120 - A head wind will:
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