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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
2 - For standard dry-runway performance class A turbojet dispatch, without reduced landing distance approval, what fraction of the LDA is the maximum permitted unfactored AFM landing distance from 50 ft?
3 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
4 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
5 - In the fictional MRJT1 drift-down profiles in CAA CAP698, when using the standard bleed configuration and considering only the temperature correction, what does equivalent gross mass at engine failure represent?
6 - For the same piston-engine aeroplane in a given configuration and atmospheric conditions, which option gives the most complete list of the principal flight and fuel variables affecting endurance?
7 - Density Altitude:
8 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
9 - The speed V2 is:
10 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
11 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
12 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
13 - For the fictional MEP1 aeroplane in CAA CAP698, using the prescribed surface and slope corrections on a dry runway, which of the following increases the calculated accelerate-stop distance?
14 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
15 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
16 - Using the small-angle approximation for climb gradient, a four-jet aeroplane of mass 150 000 kg climbs steadily with all engines operating. Lift-to-drag ratio: 14; thrust per engine: 75 000 N; g = 10 m/s². What is the approximate climb gradient?
17 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
18 - In relation to take-off mass limitations, which statement is correct?
19 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
20 - Under CS-25.107(a), which speed is the lower bound for VEF and therefore also a lower bound for V1, before allowing for the speed gained during pilot recognition and reaction?
21 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
22 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
23 - In still air, which of the following speeds provides the greatest height gain per horizontal distance during climb?
24 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
25 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
26 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
27 - During certification flight testing on a dry runway, a four-engine turbojet aeroplane has a one-engine-inoperative take-off distance of 3050 m, with engine failure at VEF and the first rejected-take-off action scheduled at V1, and an all-engines-operating distance of 2555 m to 35 ft. What take-off distance is adopted, applying CS-25.113(a)?
28 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
29 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
30 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
31 - For a performance class A aeroplane, considering the standard vertical obstacle-clearance criterion on portions of the net take-off flight path where bank does not exceed 15°, which statement about obstacle-limited take-off mass is correct?
32 - Under CS-25.125, what is the minimum percentage margin above the landing-configuration reference stall speed VSR0 used in the non-icing VREF stall-speed criterion?
33 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
34 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
35 - Under the approved take-off procedure, if a single critical-engine failure is recognised at or above V1 and the aeroplane remains capable of safe flight, the take-off should:
36 - The speed V1 is defined as:
37 - In the quasi-steady descent approximation, an aeroplane descends from FL410 to FL270 at constant Mach, then to FL100 at constant IAS. Assume fixed mass and clean configuration, negligible idle thrust and kinetic-energy corrections, incompressible flow, and flight on the high-speed side of minimum drag. How does the descent angle change in the first and second parts?
38 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
39 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
40 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
41 - Density altitude is the:
42 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
43 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
44 - For standard performance class A turbojet dispatch to a wet destination runway, without approved wet-runway AFM data or reduced landing distance approval, the required LDA is the unfactored dry landing distance plus approximately:
45 - The optimum altitude:
46 - At unchanged TAS, configuration and rate of climb, a constant horizontal headwind will:
47 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
48 - For performance Class A take-off obstacle clearance, where the vertical-clearance criterion is used and bank does not exceed 15 degrees, what does the prescribed minimum 35 ft clearance represent?
49 - The take-off distance available is:
50 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
51 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
52 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
53 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
54 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
55 - In the fictional MRJT1 drift-down data in CAA CAP698, Figure 4.24 (37,000 ft, standard bleed configuration and ISA +10 degrees C or colder), why does the 35,000 kg equivalent-gross-mass curve start at approximately 4 minutes after engine failure?
56 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
57 - The rate of climb:
58 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
59 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
60 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
61 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
62 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
63 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
64 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
65 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
66 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
67 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
68 - Assuming both flight levels are permitted by all aircraft and operational limits, which wind condition could make cruising 4000 ft or more below the still-air optimum altitude more fuel-efficient over the ground, if the wind benefit outweighs the lower-altitude fuel penalty?
69 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
70 - In the elementary constant-force runway model, with fixed take-off and decision speeds and an unchanged airborne portion, an uphill slope reduces acceleration but assists braking. Compared with a level runway, which effect follows?
71 - When a take-off in a jet transport aeroplane is rejected before V1, what immediate thrust-lever action is required to remove the accelerating thrust?
72 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
73 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
74 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
75 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
76 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
77 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
78 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
79 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
80 - With flaps 10°, the AFM gives a runway-limited take-off mass of 5270 kg and an obstacle-limited mass of 4630 kg; the estimated mass is 5000 kg. For an aeroplane showing the usual approved trade-off between shorter take-off distance with more flap and better climb with less flap, which change tends to increase the obstacle limit at the expense of the runway limit? The revised AFM limits must still be checked before accepting 5000 kg.
81 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
82 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
83 - Which data can be extracted from buffet onset boundary data?
84 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
85 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
86 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
87 - In the conventional still-air aerodynamic model, with constant propulsion efficiency or specific fuel consumption and with neither optimum restricted by speed limits, the speed for maximum endurance:
88 - Which of the following answers is true?
89 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
90 - For a performance class A twin-engined aeroplane with MOPSC at least 20, the current Part-CAT route-distance threshold beyond which ETOPS approval is required is:
91 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
92 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
93 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
94 - The drift down requirements are based on:
95 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
96 - In the simple, unconstrained propeller-aircraft range model at fixed mass, altitude and configuration, what is the effect of a uniform headwind on the IAS for maximum ground range and on the IAS for maximum air-relative climb angle, respectively?
97 - Complete this statement for a CS-25 dry-runway accelerate-stop assessment: the first action to reject the take-off is taken at (i) ___; the calculated stopping distance includes an additional distance equivalent to (ii) ___ at that speed; and the required distance must not exceed the (iii) ___.
98 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
99 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
100 - Within the approved take-off flap range where additional flap improves field-length performance, what is the usual effect of the larger setting on required take-off distance and field-length-limited take-off mass, with other limits unchanged?
101 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
102 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
103 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
104 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
105 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
106 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
107 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
108 - In the simplified anti-skid-inoperative take-off calculation for the training aircraft MRJT1, which of the following calls for a reduction of V1?
109 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
110 - At the same instantaneous airspeed, mass, altitude, configuration and constant engine power, diverting some excess power into acceleration, compared with maintaining that airspeed steadily, will:
111 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
112 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
113 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
114 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
115 - Under the standard Part-CAT dry-runway dispatch rule for a performance class A turboprop aeroplane, with no reduced landing distance approval and no steep approach, which statement is correct?
116 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
117 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
118 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
119 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
120 - During take-off the third segment begins:
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