Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
EN angle-down

Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject New Test
1 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
2 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
3 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
4 - Density altitude is the:
5 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
6 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
7 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
8 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
9 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
10 - What is the result of a large take-off flap setting compared to a small take-off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
11 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
12 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
13 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: -3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1; -2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
14 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
15 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
16 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
17 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
18 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
19 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
20 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
21 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
22 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
23 - The speed V2 is:
24 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
25 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
26 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
27 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
28 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
29 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
30 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
31 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
32 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
33 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
34 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
35 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
36 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
37 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
38 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
39 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
40 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
41 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
42 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
43 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
44 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
45 - An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
46 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
47 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
48 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
49 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
50 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
51 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
52 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
53 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
54 - The speed for maximum endurance
55 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
56 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
57 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
58 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
59 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
60 - Which data can be extracted from buffet onset boundary data?
61 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
62 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
63 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
64 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
65 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
66 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
67 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
68 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
69 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
70 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
71 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
72 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
73 - A constant headwind:
74 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
75 - Density Altitude:
76 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
77 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
78 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
79 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
80 - The speed V1 is defined as:
81 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
82 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
83 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
84 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
85 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
86 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
87 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights?
88 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
89 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
90 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
91 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
92 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
93 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
94 - The drift down requirements are based on:
95 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
96 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
97 - The take-off distance available is:
98 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
99 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
100 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
101 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5270 kg - obstacle limit: 4630 kg. Estimated take-off mass is 5000 kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
102 - During take-off the third segment begins:
103 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
104 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
105 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
106 - V1 has to be:
107 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
108 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
109 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
110 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
111 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
112 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
113 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
114 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
115 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
116 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
117 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
118 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
119 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
120 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
PRO
★★★★★ 4,8/5
Quizvds PRO
All Questions Included
Start Now
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free
Download mobile apps
Download mobile apps
© 2026 EGWeb di Guatta Mattia - VAT: 04768540983