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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
2 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
3 - During take-off the third segment begins:
4 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
5 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
6 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
7 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
8 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
9 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
10 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
11 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
12 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
13 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
14 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
15 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
16 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
17 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
18 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
19 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
20 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
21 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
22 - Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation?
23 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
24 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
25 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
26 - On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
27 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
28 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
29 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
30 - Which of the following answers is true?
31 - In twin-jet take-off performance, why can the climb-limit mass curve have a kink at about 30°C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
32 - Long range cruise is selected as
33 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
34 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
35 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
36 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
37 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
38 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
39 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
question perf6.webp
40 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
41 - The take-off distance available is:
42 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
43 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
44 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
45 - A constant headwind:
46 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
47 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
48 - In relation to take-off mass limitations, which statement is correct?
49 - The drift down requirements are based on:
50 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
51 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
52 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
53 - Which data can be extracted from buffet onset boundary data?
54 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
55 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
56 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
57 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
58 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
59 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
60 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
61 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
62 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
63 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
64 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
65 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
66 - The speed for maximum endurance
67 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
68 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
69 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
70 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
71 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
72 - The speed V2 is:
73 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
74 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
75 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
76 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
77 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
78 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
79 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g = 10 m/s²)
80 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
81 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
82 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
83 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
84 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
85 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
86 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
87 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
88 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
89 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
90 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
91 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
92 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
93 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
94 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
95 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
96 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
97 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
98 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
99 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
100 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
101 - VX is:
102 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
103 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
104 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
105 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
106 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
107 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
108 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
109 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
110 - Field length is balanced when:
111 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
112 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
113 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
114 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
115 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights?
116 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
117 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
118 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5270 kg - obstacle limit: 4630 kg. Estimated take-off mass is 5000 kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
119 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
120 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
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