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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
2 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
3 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
4 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
5 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
6 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
7 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
8 - The rate of climb:
9 - A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
10 - A constant headwind:
11 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
12 - The optimum altitude:
13 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
14 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
15 - Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
16 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
17 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
18 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
19 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
20 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
21 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
22 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
23 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
24 - Field length is balanced when:
25 - A headwind will:
26 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g = 10 m/s²)
27 - VX is:
28 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
29 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
30 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
31 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
32 - What effect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
33 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
34 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
35 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
36 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
37 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
38 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
39 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
40 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
41 - Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
42 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
43 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
44 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
45 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
46 - Density Altitude:
47 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
48 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
49 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
50 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
51 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
52 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
53 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
54 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
55 - The speed for maximum endurance
56 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5270 kg - obstacle limit: 4630 kg. Estimated take-off mass is 5000 kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
57 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
58 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
59 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
60 - The speed V1 is defined as:
61 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
62 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
63 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
64 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
65 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
66 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
67 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
68 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
69 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
70 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
71 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
72 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
73 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
74 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
75 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
76 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
77 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
78 - Density altitude is the:
79 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
80 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
81 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
82 - Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:
question perf6.webp
83 - Which of the following answers is true?
84 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
85 - The speed V2 is:
86 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
87 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
88 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
89 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
90 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
91 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
92 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
93 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
94 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
95 - During take-off the third segment begins:
96 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
97 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
98 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
99 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
100 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
101 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
102 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
103 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
104 - The take-off distance available is:
105 - Long range cruise is selected as
106 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
107 - V1 has to be:
108 - Uphill slope:
109 - The drift down requirements are based on:
110 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
111 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
112 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
113 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
114 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
115 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
116 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
117 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
118 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
119 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
120 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
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