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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:
2 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required:
3 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
4 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
5 - The speed V1 is defined as:
6 - Density altitude is the:
7 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
8 - The optimum altitude:
9 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
10 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
11 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
12 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
13 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
14 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
15 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
16 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
17 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
18 - Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
19 - The rate of climb:
20 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
21 - The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for:
22 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
23 - During take-off the third segment begins:
24 - The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
25 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
26 - The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:
27 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
28 - The speed V2 is:
29 - Uphill slope:
30 - VX is:
31 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
32 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
33 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
34 - With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
35 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
36 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
37 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
38 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
39 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
40 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
41 - Long range cruise is selected as
42 - V1 has to be:
43 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
44 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
45 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
46 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
47 - The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the:
48 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
49 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
50 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
51 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
52 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
53 - Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:
54 - At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
55 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
56 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
57 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
58 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
59 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
60 - In twin-jet take-off performance, why can the climb-limit mass curve have a kink at about 30°C and pressure altitude 0 ft?
61 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
62 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
63 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
64 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
65 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
66 - A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant):
67 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
68 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
69 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
70 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
71 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
72 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
73 - Which of the following answers is true?
74 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
75 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
76 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5270 kg - obstacle limit: 4630 kg. Estimated take-off mass is 5000 kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at:
77 - What is the effect of a headwind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
78 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
79 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
80 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
81 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
82 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
83 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
84 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
85 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
86 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
87 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
88 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
89 - At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
question perf1.webp
90 - A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g = 10 m/s²)
91 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
92 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
93 - Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude?
94 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
95 - The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with CS-25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration:
96 - Density Altitude:
97 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
98 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
99 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
100 - The take-off distance available is:
101 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
102 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
103 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
104 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
105 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
106 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
107 - Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?
108 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
109 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
110 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
111 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights?
112 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
113 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
114 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
115 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
116 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
117 - Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
118 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
119 - In relation to take-off mass limitations, which statement is correct?
120 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
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