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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
2 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:
3 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
4 - For standard performance class A turbojet dispatch to a wet alternate runway, without approved wet-runway AFM data or reduced landing distance approval, the required LDA is the unfactored dry landing distance plus approximately:
5 - What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
6 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
7 - The induced drag of an aeroplane:
8 - Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance?
9 - With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects)
10 - Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50000 Newton / Engine. g = 10 m/s². Drag = 72569 N. Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7%. SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions with 1 engine out is:
11 - The rate of climb:
12 - In the conventional still-air aerodynamic model, with constant propulsion efficiency or specific fuel consumption and with neither optimum restricted by speed limits, the speed for maximum endurance:
13 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
14 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
15 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
16 - For standard performance class A turbojet dispatch to a wet destination runway, without approved wet-runway AFM data or reduced landing distance approval, the required LDA is the unfactored dry landing distance plus approximately:
17 - The speed V1 is defined as:
18 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
19 - Using the small-angle approximation for climb gradient, a four-jet aeroplane of mass 150 000 kg climbs steadily with all engines operating. Lift-to-drag ratio: 14; thrust per engine: 75 000 N; g = 10 m/s². What is the approximate climb gradient?
20 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
21 - For the same piston-engine aeroplane in a given configuration and atmospheric conditions, which option gives the most complete list of the principal flight and fuel variables affecting endurance?
22 - In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:
23 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
24 - The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
25 - A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature:
26 - The take-off distance available is:
27 - With a true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min in still air, the climb angle is approximately:
28 - What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take-off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass)
29 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
30 - The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
31 - At unchanged TAS, configuration and rate of climb, a constant horizontal headwind will:
32 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
33 - Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
34 - The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass:
35 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
36 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
37 - Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
38 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
39 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
40 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
41 - For the 35,000 kg MRJT1 long-range-cruise schedule in CAA CAP697 under ISA conditions, how does the scheduled Mach number change as pressure altitude is reduced from FL370 to FL270?
42 - Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?
43 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights?
44 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
45 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
46 - A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires:
47 - If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur?
48 - The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
49 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
50 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
51 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
52 - Which of the following answers is true?
53 - A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 KT true airspeed, no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
54 - If a critical-engine failure is recognised during take-off early enough for the first stopping action to be initiated at or before the scheduled V1, what is the required action under the approved rejected-take-off procedure?
55 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
56 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
57 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
58 - Refer to the training Performance Manual MRJT1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing with anti-skid inoperative? Pressure altitude: 2000 ft; landing mass: 50 000 kg; flaps: as required for minimum landing distance; dry runway; maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt; maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt.
question perf1.webp
59 - For a twin jet in one-engine-inoperative cruise, assuming available thrust is approximately constant with airspeed, which speed minimises drag and therefore permits the highest sustainable altitude when crossing high ground?
60 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
61 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
62 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2. Given: OAT -10°C; pressure altitude 4 000 ft; RWY 30L; wind 180°/10 kt; take-off mass 4 600 lb; heavy-duty brakes installed. Other conditions are as stated in the graph header. What is the accelerate-stop distance under the conditions given?
question perf8.webp
63 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
64 - For a conventional aeroplane with certified landing flap positions of 25° and 35°, assume the usual trade-off: the greater extension permits a lower approach speed but produces more drag. Compare landing distance and initial go-around performance before flap retraction. Under otherwise comparable conditions, selecting 35° instead of 25° normally gives:
65 - In the elementary constant-force runway model, with fixed take-off and decision speeds and an unchanged airborne portion, an uphill slope reduces acceleration but assists braking. Compared with a level runway, which effect follows?
66 - Under EASA AMC 25-13, reduced take-off thrust using the assumed-temperature method is not authorised when an inoperative item requires additional performance corrections that significantly increase crew workload. Which of these is an example of such an item?
67 - V1 has to be:
68 - Under the standard Part-CAT dry-runway dispatch rule for a performance class A turbojet aeroplane, without reduced landing distance approval, which statement concerning landing distance is correct?
69 - The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for:
70 - Under CS-25.107(a), which speed is the lower bound for VEF and therefore also a lower bound for V1, before allowing for the speed gained during pilot recognition and reaction?
71 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
72 - During take-off the third segment begins:
73 - In the simplified jet-engine similarity model, at fixed Mach number, ambient temperature and corrected engine operating point, ambient pressure decreases by 20% during a climb. How do thrust and fuel flow change?
74 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
75 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
76 - Under CS-25.125, what is the minimum percentage margin above the landing-configuration reference stall speed VSR0 used in the non-icing VREF stall-speed criterion?
77 - A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
78 - A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
79 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000'; RWY 12L; Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the take-off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?
question perf7.webp
80 - For a jet aeroplane in steady level flight, at fixed mass and configuration and with constant thrust-specific fuel consumption, the tangent from the origin to the thrust-power-required versus TAS curve identifies the speed for:
81 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
82 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
83 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
84 - Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
85 - When a take-off in a jet transport aeroplane is rejected before V1, what immediate thrust-lever action is required to remove the accelerating thrust?
86 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
87 - In the conventional quasi-steady glide model at constant Mach, fixed mass and configuration, neglecting compressibility and energy transients and remaining on the high-speed side of minimum drag, how does pitch angle change during descent as ambient pressure increases?
88 - Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
89 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
90 - Complete this statement for a CS-25 dry-runway accelerate-stop assessment: the first action to reject the take-off is taken at (i) ___; the calculated stopping distance includes an additional distance equivalent to (ii) ___ at that speed; and the required distance must not exceed the (iii) ___.
91 - At unchanged TAS, configuration and rate of climb, a constant horizontal headwind component compared with still air:
92 - Long range cruise is selected as
93 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
94 - In still air, how is the aerodynamic climb gradient, relative to the air mass, expressed as a percentage?
95 - Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for 'flaps down' compared to 'clean' configuration?
question perf4.webp
96 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
97 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
98 - Which relationship is required by the CS-25 take-off speed selection rules?
99 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
100 - For a dry-runway balanced-field performance calculation, field length is balanced at the selected V1 when:
101 - In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
102 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
103 - What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant?
104 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
105 - A CS-25 twin-engined turboprop has a reference stall speed VSR0 of 100 kt in the landing configuration. Assuming that VMCL and the manoeuvring-speed requirement do not impose a higher value, what is the minimum VREF under the non-icing stall-speed criterion?
106 - When supported by the approved AFM schedules, and subject to runway, tyre-speed, brake-energy and obstacle limits, which combination can increase the climb-limited take-off mass?
107 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
108 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
109 - VX is:
110 - For standard performance class A turbojet dispatch to a wet destination runway, without approved wet-runway AFM data or reduced landing distance approval, the LDA is 3000 m. What is the maximum unfactored dry AFM landing distance permitted by the 60% dry-runway rule and the 15% wet-runway increment?
111 - Under the approved take-off procedure, if a single critical-engine failure is recognised at or above V1 and the aeroplane remains capable of safe flight, the take-off should:
112 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
113 - At the same instantaneous airspeed, mass, altitude, configuration and constant engine power, diverting some excess power into acceleration, compared with maintaining that airspeed steadily, will:
114 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
115 - For performance Class A take-off obstacle clearance, where the vertical-clearance criterion is used and bank does not exceed 15 degrees, what does the prescribed minimum 35 ft clearance represent?
116 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
117 - Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (assume zero thrust and wind)
118 - The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
119 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
120 - The length of a clearway may be included in:
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