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Exam simulation Radio Navigation ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
2 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
3 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
4 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
5 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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6 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
7 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
8 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
9 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR.What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
10 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
11 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
12 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
13 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
14 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
15 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
16 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
17 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
18 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
19 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
20 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
21 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
22 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
23 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
24 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
25 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
26 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
27 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
28 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique?1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
29 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
30 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
31 - In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
32 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
33 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
34 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
35 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
36 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
37 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
38 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
39 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
40 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
41 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
42 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
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43 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
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44 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
45 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
46 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
47 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
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48 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
49 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
50 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
51 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
52 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
53 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
54 - The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
55 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM.By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
56 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
57 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
58 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
59 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
60 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
61 - For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
62 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
63 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
64 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator).If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
65 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
66 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
67 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
68 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
69 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
70 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
71 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
72 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
73 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
74 - What is a VDF referenced to?
75 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
76 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
77 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
78 - What wind velocity is indicated?
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79 - In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:(Assume a beam width of 5°)
80 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
81 - In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
82 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
83 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
84 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
85 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
86 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..... ° each side ofthe localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .... NM minimum from the threshold.
87 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
88 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
89 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
90 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
91 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
92 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads:330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
93 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
94 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
95 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
96 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
97 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
98 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
99 - How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?
100 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
101 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
102 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
103 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
104 - A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
105 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
106 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
107 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
108 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
109 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
110 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
111 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation is now able to use:
112 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
113 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
114 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
115 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
116 - A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
117 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
118 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
119 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications.This is particularly true of the:
120 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track.
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