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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
2 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
3 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
4 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
5 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
6 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
7 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
8 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
9 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
10 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
11 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
12 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
13 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
14 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
15 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
16 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
17 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
18 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
19 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
20 - Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
21 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
22 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
23 - The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 040°. On the Airborne Weather Radar display the relative bearing of and the distance to the most southerly part of Lands End (approximate position: 50°03'N, 005°40'W) are 030°R and 80 NM. What is the position of the aircraft based on these observations? The slant range correction and the map convergency between aircraft position and lands end may be neglected.
question nav5.webp
24 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
25 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
26 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
27 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
28 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
29 - Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
30 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
31 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
32 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
33 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
34 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
question nav1.webp
35 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
36 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
37 - In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:(Assume a beam width of 5°)
38 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
39 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
40 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
41 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
42 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
43 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
44 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
45 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
46 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
47 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
48 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
49 - How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?
50 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
51 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
52 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
53 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
54 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
55 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
56 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
57 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
58 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
59 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
60 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
61 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
62 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
63 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
64 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
65 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
66 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
67 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
68 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
69 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
70 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
question nav13.webp
71 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
72 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
73 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
74 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
75 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
76 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
77 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
78 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
79 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
80 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
81 - In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
82 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
83 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
84 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270°. At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E. At station Variation 28°E. Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
85 - Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
86 - In Mode A/C Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR), the transponder reply code is transmitted as a sequence of:
87 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
88 - Which frequency band includes the GPS L1 civil signal used by GNSS receivers?
89 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of:
90 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
91 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
92 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
93 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
94 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
95 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
96 - Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
97 - What is a VDF referenced to?
98 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
99 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
100 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
101 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
102 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
103 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
104 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
105 - TVOR is a
106 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
107 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
question nav21.webp
108 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
109 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
110 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
111 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
112 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
113 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
114 - Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
115 - In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
116 - An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME indicates approximately:
117 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
118 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
119 - In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
120 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
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