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Exam simulation Radio Navigation ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
2 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
3 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
4 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
5 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
6 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
7 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
8 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
9 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
10 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
11 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
12 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
13 - An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME indicates approximately:
14 - In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
15 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
16 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
17 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
18 - What is the aircraft track?
question nav2.webp
19 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track.
20 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
21 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
22 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
23 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
24 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
25 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
26 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
27 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
28 - On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB?
29 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
30 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
31 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
32 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
33 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
34 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
35 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
36 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
37 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
38 - Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
39 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
40 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
41 - A MLS without DME-P provides:
42 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
43 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
44 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
45 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
46 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
47 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
48 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
49 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
50 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
51 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
52 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
53 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
54 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
55 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
56 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
57 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
58 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
59 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i) .......... frequencies and carry different (ii) ..........
60 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
61 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
62 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
63 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
64 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
65 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
66 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
67 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
68 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
69 - In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
70 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
71 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
72 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
73 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
74 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
75 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
76 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
77 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
78 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
79 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
80 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
81 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
82 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
83 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
84 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
85 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
86 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
87 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
88 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
89 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
90 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
91 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
92 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
93 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
94 - TVOR is a
95 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
96 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
97 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
98 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
99 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
100 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
101 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
102 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
103 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
104 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
105 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
106 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
107 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
108 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
109 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
110 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
111 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
112 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
113 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
114 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
115 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
116 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
117 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
118 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
119 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
120 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
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