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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot Licence

Exam simulation ATPL Question Bank in English Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
2 - In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
3 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
4 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
5 - How does a conventional single-frequency GPS receiver use the broadcast Klobuchar ionospheric model?
6 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
7 - What is a practical advantage of the NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' receiver technique?
8 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
9 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
10 - Among the listed legacy GPS codes, which is intended for unrestricted reception by ordinary civil aviation receivers?
11 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
12 - What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes in Mode A?
13 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
14 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
15 - A conventional published localiser back-course approach using lateral guidance alone is:
16 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
17 - The secondary or harmonic false glidepaths associated with the normal vertical radiation pattern of an ILS glidepath antenna occur:
18 - Which figure shows a MAP presentation with route and waypoint information ahead of the aeroplane symbol at the bottom of the display?
question nav1.webp
19 - The aircraft-specific performance models used by an FMS to calculate performance predictions and reference speeds belong primarily to the:
20 - Which FMS database contains the aircraft aerodynamic and engine performance models used by the FMC to calculate suitable cruise speeds?
21 - For a stationary receiver and a constant emitted frequency, which transmitter motion causes a first-order increase in the received frequency through the longitudinal Doppler effect?
22 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
23 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
24 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
25 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
26 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
27 - For DME/N equipment first installed after 1 January 1989, ICAO Annex 10 limits the combined error contribution from the transponder, its location coordinates, propagation and random pulse interference, excluding airborne equipment and on a 95% probability basis, to:
28 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
29 - During conventional IFR airway flight using GPS for lateral navigation, which altitude source is used to comply with assigned altitudes and flight levels?
30 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
31 - With a valid position fix and a defined active leg, which group consists of RNAV guidance quantities relative to that leg?
32 - For a conventional 3° ILS glidepath display, the nominal angular offset corresponding to the first full-scale downward indication is approximately:
33 - In the legacy GPS signal structure, which unencrypted civil code is transmitted on the L1 carrier?
34 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
question nav8.webp
35 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
36 - What information does a conventional two-dimensional primary radar provide for an ATC display when no secondary-radar or other identification/altitude data are associated with the return?
37 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
38 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
39 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
40 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
41 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
42 - Under ICAO Annex 10, which global-average positioning error limit for 95% of the time applies to healthy GPS SPS L1 C/A signal-in-space under normal operations, excluding atmospheric and receiver errors?
43 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
44 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
45 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
46 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
47 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
48 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
49 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
50 - Which facility supplies the precision ranging used to support advanced MLS approach capabilities?
51 - For an ILS localiser with a nominal full-scale course sector 5° wide, first reaching full-scale left deflection of the CDI corresponds to an angular displacement of approximately:
52 - Area navigation (RNAV) permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
53 - For an ICAO Facility Performance Category I ILS, the definition requires guidance from the coverage limit down to the point where the localiser course line intersects the glidepath at a height of:
54 - What approximate magnetic track is indicated by the track line in this display?
question nav2.webp
55 - When an EFIS removes the associated VOR deviation bar or bearing pointer after a receiver failure, the main purpose is to:
56 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
57 - The higher-order false courses associated with the normal vertical ILS glidepath radiation pattern are:
58 - An aircraft is at FL100 in ISA (10,000 ft MSL). A VOR antenna at 0 ft MSL provides a usable voice-weather broadcast. Ignoring power, obstructions and service-volume limitations, what is the approximate theoretical radio-horizon range using D(NM) = 1.23 × (√h₁ + √h₂), with heights in feet?
59 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
60 - Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
61 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
62 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
63 - For a traditional NDB/ADF bearing system without an integrity-warning flag, important reliability limitations include:
64 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
65 - In an FMS equipped for automatic DME/DME position updating, how are suitable DME stations normally selected?
66 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
67 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
68 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
69 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
70 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
71 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
72 - In a conventional FMS, which database contains published company-route and procedure definitions that can be selected when building a flight plan?
73 - Within its specified vertical sector, normal ICAO ILS glidepath coverage extends (i) …° on each side of the glidepath centreline to at least (ii) … NM from the glidepath antenna.
74 - In the conventional NDB inbound-track establishment criterion, also reflected in EASA approach training, the aircraft should be within which angle of the required bearing before further descent after the inbound turn?
75 - For a conventional VOR, the 30 Hz variable-phase signal lags the reference-phase signal by 90°. The receiver is on the magnetic radial towards:
76 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
77 - A ground VDF station reports magnetic QDM/QDR using its local magnetic declination. Those bearings are referenced to:
78 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270°. At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E. At station Variation 28°E. Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
79 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
80 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
81 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
82 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
83 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
84 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
85 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
86 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
87 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
88 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
89 - A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
90 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
91 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
92 - In conventional SSR Mode C, the aircraft transponder reports pressure altitude referenced to 1,013.25 hPa in increments of:
93 - Where peak traffic exceeds 100 aircraft, what is the mandatory minimum aircraft-handling capacity of a DME transponder under ICAO Annex 10, distinct from the recommendation to handle the full peak traffic?
94 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
95 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
96 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
97 - On a normal-sensing inbound ILS front-course approach, a localiser display has five dots per side and full-scale sensitivity of 2.5° per side. If the CDI is two dots to the right, the aircraft is approximately:
98 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
99 - Which of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using GNSS and inertial-reference inputs?
100 - According to the ICAO Annex 10, Volume I definition, what is the usual average radius of rated coverage of an LF/MF locator?
101 - TVOR is a
102 - What is the approximate selected magnetic course shown by the course arrow?
question nav3.webp
103 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
104 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
105 - For the final approach segment of an RNP APCH to LNAV minima, the lateral total system error must be within which value for at least 95% of the flight time?
106 - Regarding the published procedure records in a conventional FMS navigation database, which statement is correct?
107 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
108 - Which carrier frequency and code are used by a traditional single-frequency civil GPS receiver operating with the L1 C/A signal?
109 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
110 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
111 - An aircraft is on VOR radial 120°, with magnetic heading 070°. On a normal-sensing HSI, inbound course 340° is selected and the TO indication is displayed. Relative to the aeroplane symbol, the displaced deviation bar lies:
112 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
113 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
114 - What is the approximate magnetic track of the displayed leg from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
115 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
116 - During an IFR operation that depends on GPS RAIM, RAIM becomes unavailable and there is no other approved integrity-monitoring method for that GPS operation. Which action can permit the flight to continue?
117 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
118 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
119 - Which listed pair consists of operational GNSS constellations whose measurements can be combined by a compatible receiver to improve satellite geometry and redundancy?
120 - A conventional monostatic pulsed primary radar with a shared transmit/receive antenna uses:
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