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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
2 - The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:
3 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
4 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
5 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
6 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
7 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
8 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
9 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
10 - The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
11 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
12 - The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 040°. On the Airborne Weather Radar display the relative bearing of and the distance to the most southerly part of Lands End (approximate position: 50°03'N, 005°40'W) are 030°R and 80 NM. What is the position of the aircraft based on these observations? The slant range correction and the map convergency between aircraft position and lands end may be neglected.
question nav5.webp
13 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
14 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
15 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
16 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
17 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
18 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
19 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
20 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
21 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
22 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
23 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
24 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
25 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
26 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
27 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
28 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
29 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
30 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
31 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
32 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
33 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
34 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
35 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
36 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
37 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
38 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
39 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
40 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
41 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
42 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
43 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
44 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to:
45 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
46 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
47 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
48 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
49 - The middle marker transmits on:
50 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
51 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
52 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
53 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
54 - According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach?
55 - In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
56 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
57 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
58 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
59 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
60 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
61 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
62 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
63 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
64 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
65 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
66 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
67 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
68 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
69 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
70 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
71 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
72 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
73 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
74 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
75 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
76 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
77 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
78 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
79 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
80 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
81 - What is the aircraft track?
question nav2.webp
82 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
83 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
84 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
85 - Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
86 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
87 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
88 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
89 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
90 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
91 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
92 - Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
93 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
94 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
question nav21.webp
95 - In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
96 - In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
97 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
98 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
99 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
100 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
101 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
102 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
103 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
104 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
105 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
106 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
107 - What is the value of the selected course?
question nav3.webp
108 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
109 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
110 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
111 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
112 - What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?
113 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
114 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
115 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
116 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
117 - In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
118 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
119 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
120 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
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