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Exam simulation Radio Navigation ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
2 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
3 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
4 - How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
5 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
6 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
7 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
8 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
9 - The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains:
10 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
11 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
12 - Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
13 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
14 - What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry out two dimensional operation?
15 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
16 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
17 - What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
18 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
19 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
20 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
21 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
22 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
23 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
24 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
25 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
26 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
27 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
28 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
29 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
30 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
31 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
32 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
33 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
34 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
35 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
36 - In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
37 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
38 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
39 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
40 - Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
41 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
42 - Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
43 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
44 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
45 - Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
46 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
47 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
48 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
49 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
50 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
51 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
52 - Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
53 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
54 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALLILEO:
55 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
56 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
57 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
58 - What does ADF stand for?
59 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
60 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
61 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
62 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
63 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL.An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
64 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
65 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
66 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
67 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
68 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
69 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
70 - A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
71 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
72 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
73 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
74 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
75 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
76 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
77 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
78 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track.
79 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
80 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
81 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
82 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
83 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
84 - What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?
85 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
86 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
87 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
88 - In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
89 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
90 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
91 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
92 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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93 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
94 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
95 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
96 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
97 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
question nav4.webp
98 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
99 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
100 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
101 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
102 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
103 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
104 - Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
105 - What drift is being experienced?
question nav10.webp
106 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
107 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
108 - In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
109 - Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
110 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
111 - The middle marker transmits on:
112 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
113 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
114 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
115 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
116 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
117 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
118 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
119 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
120 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to:
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