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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
2 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
3 - What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
4 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
5 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
6 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
7 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
8 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
9 - Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
10 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
11 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
12 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
13 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
14 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
15 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
16 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
17 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
18 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
19 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
20 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
question nav13.webp
21 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
22 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
23 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
24 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
25 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
26 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
27 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
28 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
29 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
30 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
31 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
32 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
33 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
34 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
35 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
36 - A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
37 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
38 - Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME system?
39 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
40 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
41 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
42 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
43 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
44 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
45 - Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
46 - What does ADF stand for?
47 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
48 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
49 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
50 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
51 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
52 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
53 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
54 - Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
55 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
56 - An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing almost full right deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
57 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
58 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
59 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
60 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
61 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
62 - In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:(Assume a beam width of 5°)
63 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
64 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
65 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
66 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
67 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
68 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
69 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
70 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
71 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
72 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
73 - In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
74 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
75 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
76 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
77 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
78 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
79 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
80 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
81 - In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
82 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
83 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
84 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
85 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
86 - On which displays can the pilot read the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB directly, without calculation?
87 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
88 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
89 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
90 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
91 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
92 - Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR / DME-based Area Navigation System?
93 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
94 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
95 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
96 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
97 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
98 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
99 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
100 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
101 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
102 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
103 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
104 - Under CS-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
105 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
106 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
107 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
108 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:
109 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
110 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
111 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
112 - What drift is being experienced?
question nav10.webp
113 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
114 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
115 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
116 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
117 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
118 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
119 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
120 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
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