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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A MLS without DME-P provides:
2 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
3 - What is the value of the selected course?
question nav3.webp
4 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
5 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
6 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
7 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
8 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
9 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
10 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
11 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
12 - What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes in Mode A?
13 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
14 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
question nav13.webp
15 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
16 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
17 - In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
18 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
19 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
20 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
21 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
22 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
23 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
24 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
25 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
26 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
27 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
28 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
29 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
30 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
31 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
32 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
33 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
34 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
35 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
36 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
37 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
38 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
39 - Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
40 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
41 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
42 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
43 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
44 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
45 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
46 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
47 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
48 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
49 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
50 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
51 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
52 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
53 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
54 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
55 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
56 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
57 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
58 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
59 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
60 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of:
61 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
62 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
63 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
64 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
65 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to:
66 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
67 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
68 - Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR / DME-based Area Navigation System?
69 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
70 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
71 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
72 - Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?
73 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
74 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
75 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
76 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
77 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
78 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
79 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
80 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
81 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
82 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
83 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
84 - Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
85 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
86 - What is a VDF referenced to?
87 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
88 - A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
89 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
90 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
91 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
92 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
93 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
94 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
95 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
96 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
97 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
98 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
question nav6.webp
99 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
100 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
101 - For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
102 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
103 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
104 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
105 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
106 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
107 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
108 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
109 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
110 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
111 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
112 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
113 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
114 - Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME system?
115 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
116 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
117 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
118 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
119 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
120 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
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