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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
2 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
3 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of:
4 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
5 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
6 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
7 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
8 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
9 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
10 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
11 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
12 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
13 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
14 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
15 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
16 - Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?
17 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
18 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
19 - In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
20 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
21 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
22 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
question nav21.webp
23 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
24 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
25 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
26 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
27 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
28 - What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?
29 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
30 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
31 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
32 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
33 - Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
34 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
35 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
36 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
37 - Mode A or C garbling may occur to:
38 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
39 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
40 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
41 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
42 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
43 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
44 - The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
45 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
46 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
47 - According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach?
48 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
49 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
50 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
51 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
52 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
53 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
54 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
55 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
56 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
57 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
58 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
59 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
60 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
61 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
62 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
63 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
64 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
65 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
66 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
67 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
68 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
69 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
70 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
71 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
72 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
73 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
74 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
75 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
76 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
77 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
78 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
79 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
80 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
81 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
82 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
83 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
84 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
85 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
86 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
87 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
88 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
89 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)..... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii).... NM minimum from the threshold.
90 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
91 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
92 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
93 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
94 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
95 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
96 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
97 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
98 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
99 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
100 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
101 - What is the aircraft track?
question nav2.webp
102 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
103 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
104 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270°. At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E. At station Variation 28°E. Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
105 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
106 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
107 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
108 - How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?
109 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
110 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
111 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
112 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
113 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
114 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
115 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
116 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
117 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
118 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
119 - Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
120 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
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