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Exam simulation Radio Navigation ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
2 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
3 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
4 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
5 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'.CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
6 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
7 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
8 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
9 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
10 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
11 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
12 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
13 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
14 - What wind velocity is indicated?
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15 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
16 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
17 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
18 - What is the heading bug selected to?
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19 - The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0') from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
20 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
21 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
22 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
23 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
24 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
25 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
26 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
27 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
28 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
29 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
30 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
31 - Given:W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E,TAS 80 KTWhat relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
32 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
33 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
34 - What drift is being experienced?
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35 - According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach?
36 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
37 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
38 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
39 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
40 - The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains:
41 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
42 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR.What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
43 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
44 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
45 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
46 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
47 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
48 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
49 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
50 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
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51 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
52 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
53 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
54 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
55 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
56 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
57 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
58 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
59 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
60 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
61 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
62 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
63 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
64 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
65 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
66 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
67 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
68 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
69 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
70 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
71 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
72 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
73 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
74 - Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
75 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
76 - A MLS without DME-P provides:
77 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
78 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
79 - The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:
80 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
81 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
82 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
83 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
84 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
85 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
86 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
87 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
88 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
89 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
90 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
91 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
92 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
93 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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94 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
95 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
96 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
97 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
98 - What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?
99 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
100 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
101 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
102 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
103 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
104 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
105 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
106 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
107 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
108 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
109 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
110 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
111 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
112 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
113 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
114 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
115 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
116 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
117 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
118 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
119 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
120 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
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