1 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
2 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
3 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
4 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
5 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
6 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
7 - A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
8 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique?1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
9 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
10 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
11 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
12 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
13 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
14 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
15 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
16 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
17 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
18 - What drift is being experienced?
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19 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
20 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
21 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
22 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
23 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
24 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
25 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
26 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
27 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
28 - Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
29 - What is the aircraft track?
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30 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
31 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
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32 - An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W.The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
33 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
34 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
35 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
36 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
37 - In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
38 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
39 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
40 - In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
41 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
42 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
43 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
44 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
45 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
46 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
47 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation is now able to use:
48 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
49 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
50 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
51 - In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
52 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
53 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track.
54 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
55 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
56 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
57 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
58 - A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
59 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
60 - On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB?
61 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
62 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
63 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
64 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
65 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
66 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
67 - An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
68 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
69 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
70 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
71 - Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
72 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator).If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
73 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
74 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
75 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
76 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
77 - What is the heading bug selected to?
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78 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
79 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
80 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
81 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
82 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
83 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
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84 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
85 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
86 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
87 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
88 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
89 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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90 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
91 - What wind velocity is indicated?
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92 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
93 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
94 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
95 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:
96 - Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
97 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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98 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
99 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
100 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
101 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
102 - An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME indicates approximately:
103 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
104 - How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
105 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
106 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
107 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
108 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
109 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
110 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
111 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
112 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
113 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
114 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
115 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
116 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
117 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..... ° each side ofthe localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .... NM minimum from the threshold.
118 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
119 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
120 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?