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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
2 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
3 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
4 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
5 - What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
6 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
7 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
8 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
9 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
10 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
11 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
12 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
13 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
14 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
15 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
16 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
17 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
18 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
19 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
20 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
21 - An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing almost full right deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
22 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
23 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
24 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
25 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
26 - In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
27 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
28 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
29 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
30 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
31 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
32 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
33 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
34 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
35 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
36 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
37 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
38 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
39 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
40 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
41 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
42 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
43 - Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
44 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
45 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
46 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
47 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
48 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
49 - Under CS-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
50 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
51 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
question nav6.webp
52 - In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
53 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
54 - What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
55 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
56 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
57 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
58 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
59 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
60 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
61 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
62 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
63 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
64 - What is a practical advantage of the NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' receiver technique?
65 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
66 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
67 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
68 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
69 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
70 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
71 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
72 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
73 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
74 - The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
75 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
76 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
77 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
78 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
79 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
80 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
81 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
82 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
83 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
84 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
85 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
86 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
87 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
88 - An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
89 - For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
90 - Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR / DME-based Area Navigation System?
91 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
92 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
93 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
94 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
95 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
96 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
97 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
98 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
99 - On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
100 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
101 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
102 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
103 - Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
104 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
105 - How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
106 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
107 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
108 - Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
109 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
110 - What is the heading bug selected to?
question nav22.webp
111 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
112 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
113 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
114 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
115 - What is the value of the selected course?
question nav3.webp
116 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
question nav1.webp
117 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)..... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii).... NM minimum from the threshold.
118 - The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
119 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
120 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
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