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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
2 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
3 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
4 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
5 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
6 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
7 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
8 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
9 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
10 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
11 - In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
12 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
13 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
14 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
15 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
16 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
17 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
18 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
19 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
20 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
21 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
22 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within........ of the published approach track.
23 - Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
24 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
25 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
26 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
27 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
28 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
29 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
30 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
31 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
32 - Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
33 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
34 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
35 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
36 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
37 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
38 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
39 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
40 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
41 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
42 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
43 - Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
44 - Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR / DME-based Area Navigation System?
45 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
46 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
47 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
48 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
49 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
50 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
51 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
52 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
53 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
54 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
55 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
56 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
57 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
58 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
59 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
60 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
61 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
62 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
63 - A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
64 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
65 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
66 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
67 - An aircraft is 'homing' to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
68 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
69 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
70 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
71 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
72 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
73 - Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME system?
74 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
75 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
76 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
77 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
78 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
79 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
80 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
81 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
82 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
83 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
84 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
question nav6.webp
85 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
86 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
87 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
88 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
89 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
90 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
91 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
92 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
93 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
94 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
95 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
96 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
97 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
98 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
99 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
100 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
101 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
102 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
103 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
104 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a modern transport aircraft will radar returns not be shown?
105 - The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 040°. On the Airborne Weather Radar display the relative bearing of and the distance to the most southerly part of Lands End (approximate position: 50°03'N, 005°40'W) are 030°R and 80 NM. What is the position of the aircraft based on these observations? The slant range correction and the map convergency between aircraft position and lands end may be neglected.
question nav5.webp
106 - What does ADF stand for?
107 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
108 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
109 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
110 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
111 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
112 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
113 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
114 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
115 - What wind velocity is indicated?
question nav17.webp
116 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
117 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
118 - Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?
119 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
120 - The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
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