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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
2 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
3 - Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
4 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
5 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
6 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
7 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
8 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
9 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
10 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
11 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
12 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
13 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
14 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
15 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
16 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
17 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
18 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
19 - Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
20 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
21 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
22 - 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
23 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
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24 - The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
25 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
26 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
27 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
28 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
29 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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30 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
31 - On which displays can the pilot read the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB directly, without calculation?
32 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
33 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
34 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
35 - Under CS-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
36 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
37 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
38 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
39 - Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
40 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
41 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
42 - What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?
43 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
44 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
45 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
46 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
47 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
48 - Which of the following affects VDF range?
49 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
50 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
51 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
52 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
53 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
54 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
55 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
56 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
57 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
58 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
59 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
60 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
61 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
62 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
63 - A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
64 - What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry out two dimensional operation?
65 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
66 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
67 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
68 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
69 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
70 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
71 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
72 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
73 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
74 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
75 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
76 - Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
77 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
78 - What is the heading bug selected to?
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79 - A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
80 - What is a VDF referenced to?
81 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
82 - What is the aircraft track?
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83 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of:
84 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
85 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
86 - What does ADF stand for?
87 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
88 - The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
89 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
90 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
91 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
92 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
93 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
94 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
95 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
96 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
97 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
98 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
99 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
100 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
101 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
102 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
103 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
104 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)..... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii).... NM minimum from the threshold.
105 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
106 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
107 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
108 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
109 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
110 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
111 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
112 - How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
113 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
114 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
115 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
116 - Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
117 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
118 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
119 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
120 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
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