1 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
2 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
3 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
4 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:
5 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
6 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
7 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
8 - What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
9 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
10 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
11 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
12 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
13 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
14 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
15 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
16 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
17 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
18 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
19 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
20 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
21 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
22 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
23 - Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
24 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
25 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
26 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
27 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
28 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
29 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
30 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
31 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
32 - The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
33 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
34 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
35 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
36 - In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
37 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
38 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
39 - What is the value of the selected course?
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40 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
41 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
42 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
43 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
44 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
45 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
46 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
47 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
48 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
49 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
50 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
51 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
52 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
53 - What is a VDF referenced to?
54 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
55 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
56 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
57 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
58 - The middle marker transmits on:
59 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
60 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
61 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
62 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
63 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
64 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
65 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
66 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track.
67 - What is the heading bug selected to?
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68 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
69 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
70 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
71 - A locator: 1 - is a low powered beacon; 2 - is a high powered beacon; 3 - has a range of 10 - 25 NM; 4 - has a range of 10 - 200 NM.
72 - On an ILS approach, the glidepath needle is fully down. How much deflection does this indicate?
73 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
74 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
75 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
76 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
77 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
78 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
79 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
80 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
81 - In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed?
82 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
83 - An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing almost full right deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
84 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
85 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
86 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
87 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
88 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
89 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
90 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
91 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
92 - Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
93 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
94 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
95 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
96 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
97 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
98 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
99 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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100 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
101 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
102 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
103 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
104 - A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
105 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
106 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
107 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
108 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
109 - The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
110 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
111 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
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112 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
113 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
114 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
115 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
116 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
117 - What drift is being experienced?
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118 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
119 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
120 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately: