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Exam simulation Radio Navigation ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
2 - On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
3 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..... ° each side ofthe localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .... NM minimum from the threshold.
4 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
5 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
6 - What drift is being experienced?
question nav10.webp
7 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
8 - How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite?
9 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
10 - Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?
11 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
12 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
13 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
14 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
15 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications.This is particularly true of the:
16 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
17 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
18 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator).If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
19 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
20 - According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit?
21 - One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
22 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
23 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation is now able to use:
24 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
25 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
26 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR.The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
27 - Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
28 - In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
29 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
30 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
31 - The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
32 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
33 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
34 - Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
35 - In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
36 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:
37 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
38 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
39 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
40 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
41 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
42 - A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
43 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
44 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
45 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
46 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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47 - The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains:
48 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
49 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
50 - Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR / DME-based Area Navigation System?
51 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
52 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
53 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
54 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
55 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
56 - Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
57 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
58 - Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
59 - In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
60 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads:330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
61 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
62 - Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
63 - What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
64 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
65 - Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
66 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
67 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
68 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
69 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
70 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
71 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
72 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
73 - Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
74 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
75 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
76 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
77 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
78 - In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
79 - An aircraft is flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
80 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
81 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
82 - The magnetic heading of an aircraft is 040°. On the Airborne Weather Radar display the relative bearing of and the distance to the most southerly part of Lands End (approximate position: 50°03'N , 005°40'W) are, 030°R and 80 NM.What is the position of the aircraft based on these observations?The slant range correction and the map convergency between aircraft position and lands end may be neglected.
question nav5.webp
83 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
84 - An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
85 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
86 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
87 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
88 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
89 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
90 - Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
91 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
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92 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
question nav1.webp
93 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
94 - Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
95 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
96 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
97 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
98 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
99 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
100 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
101 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed.In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
102 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
103 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
104 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
105 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
106 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
107 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given:Compass heading 270°At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E At station Variation 28°E,Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
108 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
109 - If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:
110 - Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°EEstimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
111 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
112 - A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
113 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°.In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
114 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
115 - What does ADF stand for?
116 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
117 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
118 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
119 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
120 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
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