Exam quiz Flight Performance and Planning - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Question 1

What is the fuel flow and the true airspeed for cruise flight with 60 % power in flight level 85 at an OAT of -25° C? See annex (PFP-014)

Accepted Answer

Fuel flow 18.5 L/h; TAS 85 kt.

Answer

Fuel flow 17 L/h; TAS 81 kt.

Answer

Fuel flow 17.5 L/h; TAS 83 kt.

Answer

Fuel flow 20 L/h; TAS 89 kt.

Question 2

What is correct about obstacle clearance?

Accepted Answer

It must be considered during take-off, climb, approach and landing planning

Answer

Runway length alone guarantees obstacle clearance

Answer

It matters only during IFR flight

Answer

It replaces mass-and-balance assessment

Question 3

Using figure (PFP-006), calculate the empty mass and centre-of-gravity arm after all three equipment changes. Round the CG arm to three decimal places.

Accepted Answer

498 kg; 2.814 m

Answer

512 kg; 2.854 m

Answer

494 kg; 2.828 m

Answer

498 kg; 2.854 m

Question 4

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of headwind and tailwind?

Accepted Answer

Headwind improves and tailwind degrades take-off and landing distance performance

Answer

Tailwind always reduces landing distance

Answer

Wind has no effect on groundspeed or ground roll

Answer

Headwind increases required take-off distance under otherwise equal conditions

Question 5

In normal private flying, which statement about climb performance is correct?

Accepted Answer

It may be limiting when obstacles, high mass or high density altitude are present

Answer

It always improves as temperature increases

Answer

It is unaffected by aircraft mass

Answer

It removes the need to assess obstacles

Question 6

The basic empty mass of an aircraft includes...

Accepted Answer

The empty aeroplane with installed standard equipment, unusable fuel and the oil/fluids specified by its approved mass-and-balance definition.

Answer

The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding unusable fuel and traffic load. The mass includes items such as crew and crew baggage.

Answer

The total mass of an aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including the required fuel and crew, but excluding traffic load.

Answer

The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including crew, navigation instruments and engine cowling.

Question 7

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of landing distance?

Accepted Answer

It must be assessed using expected mass, runway condition, wind and required safety margin

Answer

It is always shorter with a tailwind

Answer

It is unaffected by runway condition

Answer

It is adequate to assess it only after touchdown

Question 8

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of density altitude?

Accepted Answer

Higher density altitude reduces take-off, climb and landing performance margins

Answer

It improves every aspect of performance

Answer

It has no effect on normally aspirated engines

Answer

It makes take-off distance independent of temperature

Question 9

(For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According to ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?

Accepted Answer

Symbol C

Answer

Symbol B

Answer

Symbol A

Answer

Symbol D

Question 10

The red marking at the end of the yellow arc (5) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008)

Accepted Answer

VNE: Never-exceed speed

Answer

VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

Answer

VFE: Maximum flap extended speed

Answer

VS1: Stall speed with flaps up

Question 11

For runway magnetic direction 360° and wind from magnetic direction 240° at 12 kt, what are the approximate components?

Accepted Answer

Crosswind from the left 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.

Answer

Crosswind from the right 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.

Answer

Crosswind from the left 6 kt. Tailwind 10.4 kt.

Answer

Crosswind from the right 6 kt. Headwind 10.4 kt.

Question 12

When preparing a PPL(A) flight, what is correct about density altitude?

Accepted Answer

Higher density altitude reduces take-off, climb and landing performance margins

Answer

It improves every aspect of performance

Answer

It has no effect on normally aspirated engines

Answer

It makes take-off distance independent of temperature

Question 13

Which practical rule applies to density altitude?

Accepted Answer

Higher density altitude reduces take-off, climb and landing performance margins

Answer

It improves every aspect of performance

Answer

It has no effect on normally aspirated engines

Answer

It makes take-off distance independent of temperature

Question 14

Final reserve fuel is intended to...

Accepted Answer

provide a protected reserve and should not be planned as trip fuel

Answer

be used routinely as planned trip fuel

Answer

replace required alternate fuel in every case

Answer

be ignored whenever the destination is in sight

Question 15

Which option correctly describes soft-field technique?

Accepted Answer

It aims to reduce drag from the surface and protect the nose wheel

Answer

It requires heavy braking during take-off

Answer

It removes the need to use AFM/POH performance data

Answer

It always produces a shorter take-off distance regardless of surface

Question 16

How should aircraft mass be understood by a private pilot?

Accepted Answer

Higher mass increases take-off and landing distances and reduces climb performance

Answer

Higher mass always improves climb performance

Answer

Mass affects only structural limits, never performance

Answer

Performance effects may be ignored whenever mass is below the maximum

Question 17

The angle of descent is defined as...

Accepted Answer

The angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in degrees [°].

Answer

The ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance travelled within the same time, expressed in percent [%].

Answer

The ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance travelled within the same time, expressed in degrees [°].

Answer

The angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in percent [%].

Question 18

Forward centre of gravity normally...

Accepted Answer

increases longitudinal stability and may increase take-off distance

Answer

reduces all elevator forces in every case

Answer

always makes the aeroplane longitudinally unstable

Answer

has no influence on rotation or stall characteristics

Question 19

What is the correct operational meaning of aircraft mass?

Accepted Answer

Higher mass increases take-off and landing distances and reduces climb performance

Answer

Higher mass always improves climb performance

Answer

Mass affects only structural limits, never performance

Answer

Performance effects may be ignored whenever mass is below the maximum

Question 20

Take-off mass is 1082 kg and CG arm 0.254 m. During flight, 55 L of fuel of density 0.72 kg/L is burned at arm 0.40 m. What is landing CG arm, rounded to 0.1 cm?

Accepted Answer

24.8 cm

Answer

24.6 cm

Answer

25.2 cm

Answer

25.4 cm

Question 21

Using PFP-011, approximately what rate of climb is shown at OAT −20 °C and pressure altitude 10 000 ft?

Accepted Answer

450 ft/min.

Answer

200 ft/min.

Answer

350 ft/min.

Answer

390 ft/min.

Question 22

Which practical rule applies to take-off distance?

Accepted Answer

It must be checked against actual mass, wind, runway, slope, temperature and pressure altitude

Answer

It is constant for every flight in the same aeroplane

Answer

It is unaffected by runway slope or surface

Answer

It need only be calculated after lift-off

Question 23

Fuel flow is 42 L/h and flight time is 40 minutes. How much fuel is required?

Accepted Answer

28 L

Answer

33 L

Answer

23 L

Answer

82 L

Question 24

Baggage and cargo must be properly stowed and fastened, otherwise a shift of the cargo may cause...

Accepted Answer

Uncontrollable attitudes, structural damage, risk of injuries.

Answer

Continuous attitudes which can be corrected by the pilot using the flight controls.

Answer

Structural damage, angle of attack stability, velocity stability.

Answer

Calculable instability if the C.G. is shifting by less than 10 %.

Question 25

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of climb performance?

Accepted Answer

It may be limiting when obstacles, high mass or high density altitude are present

Answer

It always improves as temperature increases

Answer

It is unaffected by aircraft mass

Answer

It removes the need to assess obstacles

Question 26

At which airspeed do you climb to flight level (FL) 75 after a departure from an airfield which is located at a pressure altitude of 3000 ft with an initial mass of 3000 lbs? OAT at airfield: 25° C OAT in FL 75: 0° C See annex (PFP-023)

Accepted Answer

110 kt

Answer

90 kt

Answer

120 kt

Answer

100 kt

Question 27

Up to which altitude is an overflight prohibited according to the NOTAM? See figure (PFP-024)

Accepted Answer

Altitude 9500 ft MSL

Answer

Height 9500 ft

Answer

Altitude 9500 m MSL

Answer

Flight Level 95

Question 28

For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about pressure altitude?

Accepted Answer

It is used with temperature to assess density altitude and performance

Answer

It always equals QNH-indicated altitude

Answer

It is height measured by a radio altimeter

Answer

It makes temperature irrelevant to performance

Question 29

Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft?

Accepted Answer

Weight and balance

Answer

Normal procedures

Answer

Limitations

Answer

Performance

Question 30

The required data for a mass and balance calculation including masses and balance arms can be found in the...

Accepted Answer

Mass and balance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft.

Answer

Performance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft.

Answer

Documentation of the annual inspection.

Answer

Certificate of airworthiness.

Question 31

Which performance or flight planning statement is correct? An uphill runway slope on take-off normally...

Accepted Answer

increases take-off distance

Answer

decreases take-off distance

Answer

has no influence on acceleration or distance

Answer

guarantees better take-off acceleration

Question 32

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of take-off distance?

Accepted Answer

It must be checked against actual mass, wind, runway, slope, temperature and pressure altitude

Answer

It is constant for every flight in the same aeroplane

Answer

It is unaffected by runway slope or surface

Answer

It need only be calculated after lift-off

Question 33

Total mass is 750 kg and total moment is 285.0 kg m. What is the centre of gravity arm? Use one common datum for all arms and round to the nearest 0.01 m.

Accepted Answer

0.38 m

Answer

0.42 m

Answer

0.34 m

Answer

0.48 m

Question 34

In this historical NOTAM exercise, LOKH runway 17 has landing distance available 500 m because of a displaced threshold. Your required landing distance is 550 m. Can runway 17 be planned for this landing? See PFP-026.

Accepted Answer

No; the available landing distance is shorter than the required distance.

Answer

Yes, because the original runway length is 707 m.

Answer

Yes, because displaced thresholds never affect landing distance.

Answer

Yes, because the headwind removes every need to check LDA.

Question 35

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of obstacle clearance?

Accepted Answer

It must be considered during take-off, climb, approach and landing planning

Answer

Runway length alone guarantees obstacle clearance

Answer

It matters only during IFR flight

Answer

It replaces mass-and-balance assessment

Question 36

Which statement gives the best operational interpretation of runway surface condition?

Accepted Answer

Wet, soft or contaminated surfaces can increase required distances

Answer

Wet or soft surfaces always reduce landing distance

Answer

Contamination cannot affect directional control

Answer

Surface effects need not be checked when mass is below the maximum

Question 37

Which practical rule applies to aircraft mass?

Accepted Answer

Higher mass increases take-off and landing distances and reduces climb performance

Answer

Higher mass always improves climb performance

Answer

Mass affects only structural limits, never performance

Answer

Performance effects may be ignored whenever mass is below the maximum

Question 38

The end of the green arc (4) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008)

Accepted Answer

VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

Answer

VNE: Never-exceed speed

Answer

VFE: Maximum flap extended speed

Answer

VS1: Stall speed with flaps up

Question 39

Which statement about runway slope is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?

Accepted Answer

It affects acceleration during take-off and deceleration during landing

Answer

It has no influence on take-off acceleration

Answer

It replaces the need to assess wind

Answer

It has no influence on landing deceleration

Question 40

For safe PPL(A) operation, what should a private pilot remember about runway surface condition?

Accepted Answer

Wet, soft or contaminated surfaces can increase required distances

Answer

Wet or soft surfaces always reduce landing distance

Answer

Contamination cannot affect directional control

Answer

Surface effects need not be checked when mass is below the maximum

Question 41

Trip fuel is 96 L, contingency fuel is 5% of trip fuel, and reserve fuel is 30 L. For this arithmetic exercise, what is the sum of these components, excluding taxi fuel and any other fuel requirement?

Accepted Answer

130.8 L

Answer

126 L

Answer

140.8 L

Answer

120.8 L

Question 42

In practical private flying, which option correctly describes headwind and tailwind?

Accepted Answer

Headwind improves and tailwind degrades take-off and landing distance performance

Answer

Tailwind always reduces landing distance

Answer

Wind has no effect on groundspeed or ground roll

Answer

Headwind increases required take-off distance under otherwise equal conditions

Question 43

Which statement is correct for fuel reserve?

Accepted Answer

Reserve fuel provides margin for contingencies, delays and diversion

Answer

Reserve fuel is optional on every VFR flight

Answer

A reserve replaces assessment of forecast weather

Answer

All reserve fuel should routinely be included in planned trip consumption

Question 44

When preparing a PPL(A) flight, what is correct about centre of gravity limits?

Accepted Answer

The CG must remain within approved limits for stability and control

Answer

CG limits concern only passenger comfort

Answer

CG limits may be ignored below maximum mass

Answer

An excessively aft CG always improves stall recovery

Question 45

Which statement about obstacle clearance is correct for a PPL(A) pilot?

Accepted Answer

It must be considered during take-off, climb, approach and landing planning

Answer

Runway length alone guarantees obstacle clearance

Answer

It matters only during IFR flight

Answer

It replaces mass-and-balance assessment

Question 46

During initial climb, the aeroplane passes from a sheltered weak tailwind into a stronger tailwind aloft. Without correction, what immediate effect may occur?

Accepted Answer

A decrease in airspeed and rate of climb due to increasing tailwind.

Answer

An increase in airspeed and rate of climb due to decreasing tailwind.

Answer

A decrease in airspeed and climb performance due to decreasing tailwind.

Answer

An increase in airspeed and rate of climb due to increasing tailwind.

Question 47

Which performance or flight planning statement is correct? A tailwind on take-off causes...

Accepted Answer

increased take-off distance

Answer

decreased take-off distance

Answer

no change in required take-off distance

Answer

lower groundspeed at lift-off for the same airspeed

Question 48

For an arithmetic exercise, multiply a distance of 700 m by the specified factor 1.25. What is the result rounded to the nearest metre? This exercise factor is not a universal operational correction; real planning uses the applicable AFM/POH.

Accepted Answer

875 m

Answer

700 m

Answer

955 m

Answer

795 m

Question 49

Using the attached representative SEP cruise table, at FL 75, ISA temperature and 3400 lb, use 23.0 inHg or full throttle if limiting, at 2300 RPM. Approximately what TAS and fuel flow are obtained by interpolation?

Accepted Answer

TAS = 160 kt FF = 11.9 GPH

Answer

TAS = 145 kt FF = 71.1 GPH

Answer

TAS = 160 kt FF = 12.3 GPH

Answer

TAS = 145 kt FF = 11.9 GPH

Question 50

The empty weight and the corresponding centre of gravity (CG) of an aircraft are initially determined...

Accepted Answer

By weighing.

Answer

Through data provided by the aircraft manufacturer.

Answer

By calculation.

Answer

For one aircraft of a type only, since all aircraft of the same type have the same mass and CG position.

Question 51

What is the correct operational meaning of runway slope?

Accepted Answer

It affects acceleration during take-off and deceleration during landing

Answer

It has no influence on take-off acceleration

Answer

It replaces the need to assess wind

Answer

It has no influence on landing deceleration

Question 52

For safe PPL(A) operation, how should soft-field technique be understood?

Accepted Answer

It aims to reduce drag from the surface and protect the nose wheel

Answer

It requires heavy braking during take-off

Answer

It removes the need to use AFM/POH performance data

Answer

It always produces a shorter take-off distance regardless of surface

Question 53

For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about headwind and tailwind?

Accepted Answer

Headwind improves and tailwind degrades take-off and landing distance performance

Answer

Tailwind always reduces landing distance

Answer

Wind has no effect on groundspeed or ground roll

Answer

Headwind increases required take-off distance under otherwise equal conditions

Question 54

In a conventional aeroplane, moving the CG aft generally causes...

Accepted Answer

A decrease of stability.

Answer

An increased fuel consumption.

Answer

A decrease of range.

Answer

An increased stall speed.

Question 55

When preparing a PPL(A) flight, what is correct about fuel reserve?

Accepted Answer

Reserve fuel provides margin for contingencies, delays and diversion

Answer

Reserve fuel is optional on every VFR flight

Answer

A reserve replaces assessment of forecast weather

Answer

All reserve fuel should routinely be included in planned trip consumption

Question 56

Using a fuel density of 0.72 kg/L, what mass is 102 L of AVGAS 100LL, rounded to the nearest kilogram?

Accepted Answer

73 kg

Answer

142 lbs

Answer

74 lbs

Answer

142 kg

Question 57

On a chart using 30-minute latitude/longitude quadrangles, what does the maximum elevation figure (MEF) represent?

Accepted Answer

The highest terrain or obstacle elevation with the chart's vertical-data allowances, rounded up to the next 100 ft; it is not itself a minimum safe flight altitude.

Answer

The highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude.

Answer

The highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude plus a safety margin of 1000 ft (305 m), rounded to the next higher 100 ft.

Answer

The highest elevation within an area covering 1 degree of latitude and 1 degree of longitude plus a safety margin, rounded to the next lower 100 ft.

Question 58

For a VFR private pilot, what should be remembered about performance margin?

Accepted Answer

A conservative margin should remain after applying actual conditions and limitations

Answer

A zero margin is always preferred

Answer

Margins matter only for airline operations

Answer

An added margin permits aircraft limitations to be exceeded

Question 59

Total mass is 820 kg and total moment is 311.6 kg m. What is the centre of gravity arm? Use one common datum for all arms and round to the nearest 0.01 m.

Accepted Answer

0.38 m

Answer

0.42 m

Answer

0.34 m

Answer

0.48 m

Question 60

What is the correct operational meaning of take-off distance?

Accepted Answer

It must be checked against actual mass, wind, runway, slope, temperature and pressure altitude

Answer

It is constant for every flight in the same aeroplane

Answer

It is unaffected by runway slope or surface

Answer

It need only be calculated after lift-off

Question 61

How should take-off distance be understood by a private pilot?

Accepted Answer

It must be checked against actual mass, wind, runway, slope, temperature and pressure altitude

Answer

It is constant for every flight in the same aeroplane

Answer

It is unaffected by runway slope or surface

Answer

It need only be calculated after lift-off

Question 62

For safe PPL(A) operation, how should obstacle clearance be understood?

Accepted Answer

It must be considered during take-off, climb, approach and landing planning

Answer

Runway length alone guarantees obstacle clearance

Answer

It matters only during IFR flight

Answer

It replaces mass-and-balance assessment

Question 63

For safe PPL(A) operation, how should climb performance be understood?

Accepted Answer

It may be limiting when obstacles, high mass or high density altitude are present

Answer

It always improves as temperature increases

Answer

It is unaffected by aircraft mass

Answer

It removes the need to assess obstacles

Question 64

Which statement is correct for density altitude?

Accepted Answer

Higher density altitude reduces take-off, climb and landing performance margins

Answer

It improves every aspect of performance

Answer

It has no effect on normally aspirated engines

Answer

It makes take-off distance independent of temperature

Exam simulation Flight Performance and Planning - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Exam simulation EASA PPL(A) Theory Exam Questions in English Flight Performance and Planning 120 questions on 120 minutes

Exam simulation Flight Performance and Planning - EASA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane)

Exam simulation EASA PPL(A) Theory Exam Questions in English Flight Performance and Planning 120 questions on 120 minutes

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