Quiz PPL(H) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes


1 - Weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained during the flight by...
2 - What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?
3 - What is the mass of a "cube of air" with the edges 1 m long, at MSL according ISA?
4 - The basic empty mass of an aircraft includes...
5 - Which of the following messages has the highest priority?
6 - An aircraft is flying from 'A' to 'B' (distance 220 NM) at an average ground speed (GS) of 120 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After 70 NM along the course from 'A', the aircraft is 5 min ahead of the planned schedule. Using the actual GS, what is the revised estimated time of arrival (ETA) at B?
7 - Which of the following options has an effect on the autorotation characteristics?
8 - The pitch angle of a tail rotor blade is changed...
9 - The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the...
10 - During hover flight (HOGE - out of ground effect) with maximum power, how does the pilot compensate for a loss of power resulting from the use of carburettor heat?
11 - Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with different speeds and altitude. Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence?
12 - What is the great circle distance between two points A and B on the equator when the difference between the two associated meridians is exactly one degree of longitude?
13 - What kind of reduction in visibility is not very sensitive to changes in temperature?
14 - Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane...
15 - What types of airflow can be observed around a rotor blade aerofoil?
16 - Clouds are basically distinguished by what types?
17 - During hover flight, the induced airflow velocity...
18 - What weather phenomenon designated by "2" has to be expected on the lee side during "Foehn" conditions? See figure (MET-001). Siehe Anlage 1
question met-001.jpg
19 - An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a...
20 - Given: QDM: 248° VAR: 10° W The QTE is...
21 - The validity period of a helicopter type rating is...
22 - During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be...
23 - With regard to global circulation within the atmosphere, where does polar cold air meets subtropical warm air?
24 - Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways?
25 - Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"?
26 - In airspace "D" a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses. Which aeroplane has to divert?
27 - During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA and the QNH set correctly, the indicated altitude is...
28 - The pressure at MSL in ISA conditions is...
29 - What is referred to as mountain wind?
30 - A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
31 - What is the reason for the driving forces in an autorotation?
32 - What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?
33 - Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire. Which actions have to be taken immediately?
34 - What is the major task of a carburettor?
35 - Which force causes "wind"?
36 - Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?
37 - What kind of helicopter needs a tail rotor?
38 - The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called...
39 - Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by...
40 - If there is any doubt about ambiguity, a time of 1620 is to be transmitted as...
41 - An increase of stability in a helicopter causes...
42 - What process results in the formation of "advection fog"?
43 - What does a readability of 5 indicate?
44 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
45 - Which danger exists during engine start?
46 - Which of the following options does NOT stimulate motion sickness (disorientation)?
47 - Which abbreviation is used for the term "visual flight rules"?
48 - After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result...
49 - What is the advantage of a turbulent airflow compared to a laminar airflow at an aerofoil with a high angle of attack?
50 - What force affects the braking torque of the rotor in cruise?
51 - What is meant by the term "terrestrial navigation"?
52 - Given: True course from A to B: 283°. Ground distance: 75 NM. TAS: 105 kt. Headwind component: 12 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 1242 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is...
53 - A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)...
54 - The upper limit of LO R 4 equals... See annex (PFP-030) Siehe Anlage 8
question PFP-030.jpg
55 - What shape of a rotor blade has a positive impact on the lift distribution?
56 - Which ratio corresponds to the rotor disc loading?
57 - What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable?
58 - The drive system of the autogyro's main rotor is based on...
59 - What is the advantage of a gyrodyne compared to a helicopter?
60 - The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately...
61 - What information can be found in the ATIS, but not in a METAR?
62 - In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an incorrect altimeter reading?
63 - What is the call sign of the surface movement control?
64 - The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called...
65 - VOR radials are defined based on the principle of...
66 - Which statement about the required force to change the pitch angle is correct?
67 - Wake turbulence is particularly strong...
68 - How do spread and relative humidity change with increasing temperature?
69 - A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an...
70 - In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated...
71 - What needs to be done to compensate a tail-heavy centre of gravity in a helicopter?
72 - What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)?
73 - The upper limit of LO R 16 equals... See annex (PFP-056) Siehe Anlage 7
question PFP-056.jpg
74 - The shown NOTAM is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.
75 - How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers?
76 - The ground effect is noticeable by...
77 - What factor is affected by headwind during a departure?
78 - Which factor can lead to human error?
79 - What is the lowest possible VFR flight level if a true course of 181° is selected and a variation of 3° east exists?
80 - What kind of information should be included in an urgency message?
81 - The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is...
82 - Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected...
83 - What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category?
84 - Which phrase is to be used when a pilot wants the tower to know that he is ready for take-off?
85 - QNE is the...
86 - What is the correct term for a message used for air traffic control?
87 - Which weather chart shows the actual air pressure as in MSL along with pressure centers and fronts?
88 - Which dangerous situation could arise when the helicopter engine is started in strong tailwind conditions?
89 - What condition may prevent the formation of "radiation fog"?
90 - What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?
91 - The directional information "12 o'clock" is correctly transmitted as...
92 - Given: True course from A to B: 250°. Ground distance: 210 NM. TAS: 130 kt. Headwind component: 15 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 0915 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is... (2,00 P.)
93 - In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately?
94 - Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
95 - An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by...
96 - What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-011) Siehe Anlage 3
question alw-011.jpg
97 - What allows the removal of drag hinges in semi-rigid rotor systems?
98 - Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace?
99 - Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety message?
100 - When landing, if the TAS is significantly less than the ground speed, you will have...
101 - A Grey-out is the result of...
102 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Roger"?
103 - Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"?
104 - What can be expected for the prevailling wind with isobars on a surface weather chart showing large distances?
105 - How are rhumb lines and great circles depicted on a direct Mercator chart?
106 - How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts?
107 - What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz used for voice communication?
108 - Given: True course: 270°. TAS: 100 kt. Wind: 090°/25 kt. Distance: 100 NM. The flight time equals...
109 - The specified speed in the ATS flight plan equals: See annex (PFP-051) Siehe Anlage 12
question PFP-051.jpg
110 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Approved"?
111 - What is the required flight time for a distance of 236 NM with a ground speed of 134 kt?
112 - The range of a VOR is affected by...
113 - Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft?
114 - What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos?
115 - What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter?
116 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station?
117 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"?
118 - Which phrase does a pilot use when he / she wants to check the readability of his / her transmission?
119 - The occurence of a vertigo is most likely when moving the head...
120 - Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?