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Exam Simulation - PPL(H) - Private Pilot License

Quiz PPL(H) - Private Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Which action best supports safe management of updated METAR and TAF review?
2 - Which action best supports safe management of hot refuelling risk?
3 - Which statement about situational awareness is correct?
4 - What could be a reason for changing the runway indicators at aerodromes (e.g. from runway 06 to runway 07)?
5 - What does the term "Red-out" mean?
6 - What force affects the braking torque of the rotor in cruise?
7 - Magnetic heading is 300° and compass deviation is 7° E. What compass heading should be flown?
8 - Where are the two polar circles?
9 - QNH is 998 hPa and QFE is 975 hPa. What is the approximate aerodrome elevation using 27 ft per hPa?
10 - The control mixing assembly...
11 - What aerodynamic effect is most relevant? Rotor RPM starts to decay in autorotation.
12 - What does a readability of 2 indicate?
13 - Which action best supports safe management of surface condition?
14 - Given the following information, what is the true altitude? (rounded to the nearest 50 ft) QNH: 983 hPa Altitude: FL 85 Outside Air Temperature: ISA - 10°
15 - Which statement about TAF is correct?
16 - Distance to the next waypoint is 60 NM and groundspeed is 90 kt. What is the estimated time en route?
17 - What is the lowest possible VFR flight level if a true course of 181° is selected and a variation of 3° east exists?
18 - Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of other gases?
19 - Which human-factor point is most relevant? A pilot uses cabin heat and later develops headache, nausea and reduced concentration.
20 - Which statement about bird strike risk is correct?
21 - Distance to the next waypoint is 35 NM and groundspeed is 70 kt. What is the estimated time en route?
22 - Which statement about torque reaction is correct?
23 - The approximate propagation speed of electromagnetic waves is...
24 - Winds blowing uphill are defined as...
25 - Distress messages are messages...
26 - Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia?
27 - The power output of a turbine engine is limited by...
28 - What is the call sign of the flight information service?
29 - With Central European Summer Time (CEST) given as UTC+2, what UTC time corresponds to 1600 CEST?
30 - The slip indicator's ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By what actions may the ball led back to middle position?
31 - Which altitude marks the lower limit where the body is unable to completely compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure?
32 - What does a readability of 5 indicate?
33 - Which action best supports safe management of communication under stress?
34 - Which statement about a great circle is correct?
35 - Which statement about advection fog is correct?
36 - What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?
37 - Which statement about vortex ring state is correct?
38 - Why is pre-take-off briefing important for a PPL(H) flight?
39 - Which action best supports safe management of pre-take-off briefing?
40 - Given: True course from A to B: 250°. Ground distance: 210 NM. TAS: 130 kt. Headwind component: 15 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 0915 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is...
41 - What is the correct frequency for an initial distress message?
42 - Which is the colour of runway end lights?
43 - Which action best supports safe management of effective translational lift?
44 - What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75?
45 - Which statement about a cumulonimbus cloud is correct?
46 - The term QDR means...
47 - Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected...
48 - Which is the colour of runway edge lights?
49 - Which action best supports safe management of landing performance margin?
50 - SIGMET warnings are issued for...
51 - How should tailwind be considered during helicopter performance planning?
52 - Which statement about engine fire in flight is correct?
53 - Radio waves within the VHF range (e.g. VOR) travel as...
54 - Which statement about empty-field myopia is correct?
55 - Which statement about a rhumb line is correct?
56 - Which statement about hydraulic failure is correct?
57 - According to the aeronautical chart, Friesach/Hirt (LOKH) has a 707 m grass runway. The preferred runway is 17 due to a surface wind of 180°/10 kt. The required landing distance for your aircraft under the present conditions is 550 m. Considering the NOTAM below, is it safe to plan LOKH as an alternate aerodrome? Use figure (PFP-026)
question PFP-026.webp
58 - Which statement about carbon monoxide is correct?
59 - In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately?
60 - What is the safest operational response? The planned landing area has people close to the touchdown point.
61 - Which statement about blade flapping is correct?
62 - Which statement about wind shear is correct?
63 - Which human-factor point is most relevant? A pilot has slept only a few hours before an early flight.
64 - The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is...
65 - Which lines have to be used by the pilot to determine the aircraft's position?
66 - What is the best planning conclusion for strong wind perpendicular to a mountain ridge?
67 - The balance arm is the horizontal distance between...
68 - What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL?
69 - Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?
70 - Why is temperature-dew point spread important for a PPL(H) flight?
71 - Radio waves within the LF and MF range (e.g. NDB) travel as...
72 - Which components do rotor blades made of metal contain?
73 - What does the abbreviation "H24" stand for?
74 - Why is emergency landing briefing important for a PPL(H) flight?
75 - Why must an aircraft be loaded so that the centre of gravity (CG) remains within the approved limits during all phases of flight?
76 - What is the reason for retreating blade stall?
77 - The centre of gravity (CG) defines...
78 - Why is convective SIGMET information important for a PPL(H) flight?
79 - Which statement about hypoxia is correct?
80 - Magnetic heading is 100° and compass deviation is 3° E. What compass heading should be flown?
81 - Which action best supports safe management of temperature correction?
82 - What does the term "confirmation bias" mean?
83 - Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured?
84 - The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately...
85 - How should headwind be considered during helicopter performance planning?
86 - Which phrase does a pilot use when he / she wants to check the readability of his / her transmission?
87 - What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?
88 - What aerodynamic effect is most relevant? Density altitude increases.
89 - For a given aircraft mass, wake turbulence is particularly strong...
90 - Which action best supports safe management of approach briefing?
91 - What is the meaning of the radiotelephony phrase "Affirm"?
92 - A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
93 - What is the usual trade-off when helicopter stability is increased?
94 - What is the purpose of a belt clutch in the drive system?
95 - Why is tail rotor drift important for a PPL(H) flight?
96 - What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable?
97 - What is a latent error?
98 - What is the main safety effect of increased stability in a helicopter?
99 - Which statement about a Transponder Mandatory Zone is correct?
100 - The Pitot / static system is required to...
101 - Why is fire after landing important for a PPL(H) flight?
102 - The Caution Area is marked on an airspeed indicator by what colour?
103 - What is the safest operational response? During final approach, dust begins to obscure the landing reference.
104 - Which action best supports safe management of tip-path plane?
105 - A flight plan has been filed for a flight departing at an uncontrolled aerodrome. When has the actual take-off time been transmitted to ATC?
106 - Which statement about wake turbulence is correct?
107 - What is the best planning conclusion for rapidly building towering cumulus near the route?
108 - During an approach the aircraft experiences wind shear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any correction, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
109 - Which statement about isobars close together is correct?
110 - What is the most likely reason for the starter not turning when activated?
111 - Which statement about profile drag is correct?
112 - In METAR/TAF coding, what does SN mean?
113 - Which statement about the AIP is correct?
114 - At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)?
115 - Which statement about fuel planning is correct?
116 - What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope?
117 - What does the abbreviation "HX" stand for?
118 - Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
119 - Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? Use figure (AGK-008)
question AGK-008.webp
120 - Which statement about DME is correct?