Skip to content

Exam Simulation - SPL - Sailplane Pilot License

Quiz SPL - Sailplane Pilot License 120 questions on 120 minutes

1 - Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of...
2 - What negative impacts may be expected during circling overhead industrial facilities?
3 - If surrounded by airflow (v > 0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces...
4 - What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)?
5 - In which situations should a pilot use blind transmissions?
6 - A glider's trim lever is used to...
7 - What leads to a decreased stall speed Vs (IAS)?
8 - An aeroplane has a heading of 090°. The distance which has to be flown is 90 NM. After 45 NM the aeroplane is 4.5 NM north of the planned flight path. What is the corrected heading to reach the arrival aerodrome directly?
9 - Rotation around the vertical axis is called...
10 - How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers?
11 - How are two parallel runways designated?
12 - What engines are commonly used with Touring Motor Gliders (TMG)?
13 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"?
14 - Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft?
15 - On approach, wind shear suddenly decreases the tailwind. Without pilot correction, what is the immediate effect?
16 - The centre of gravity has to be located...
17 - During thermal soaring, another sailplane is following close by. What should be done to avoid a collision?
18 - The symbol labeled (2) as shown in the picture is a / an... See figure (MET-005)
question met-005.webp
19 - Given: True course from A to B: 352°. Ground distance: 100 NM. GS: 107 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 0933 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is...
20 - Where is interference drag generated?
21 - The required data for a mass and balance calculation including masses and balance arms can be found in the...
22 - Visual illusions are mostly caused by...
23 - Which factor shortens landing distance?
24 - What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope?
25 - The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the...
26 - The ratio of span and mean chord length is referred to as...
27 - What is referred to as mountain wind?
28 - When has a pre-flight check to be done?
29 - What does the abbreviation "FIS" stand for?
30 - Which of the following options does NOT stimulate motion sickness (disorientation)?
31 - Is it possible to enter airspace C with a glider plane?
32 - What is the meaning of the yellow arc on the airspeed indicator?
33 - The saturated adiabatic lapse rate should be assumed with a mean value of:
34 - When airtowing using side-located latch, the sailplane tends to...
35 - Which factor can lead to human error?
36 - The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
37 - Unless the aircraft is equipped and certified accordingly...
38 - The directional information "12 o'clock" is correctly transmitted as...
39 - What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?
40 - Where are the two polar circles?
41 - In case of cable break during airtow, a longer part of the cable remains attached to the glider plane. What action should be taken by the glider pilot?
42 - How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent boundary layer?
43 - What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "yes"?
44 - What is the true course (TC) from Uelzen (EDVU) (52°59'N, 10°28'E) to Neustadt (EDAN) (53°22'N, 011°37'E)?
question NAV-031.webp
45 - In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?
46 - Differential aileron deflection is used to...
47 - What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?
48 - What is the distance between the two parallels of longitude 150°E and 151°E along the equator?
49 - Which constructive feature has the purpose to reduce steering forces?
50 - In which situation is radio mandatory zone (RMZ) entry allowed without establishing radio contact?
51 - Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
52 - What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?
53 - Given: TC: 183°; WCA: +011°; MH: 198°; CH: 200° What are TH and VAR?
54 - What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator?
55 - What is referred to as torsion-stiffed leading edge?
56 - What conditions are favourable for the formation of thunderstorms?
57 - What is the call sign of the aerodrome control?
58 - What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?
59 - The angle of descent is defined as...
60 - What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL110?
61 - What is the gas composition of "air"?
62 - What distance can be covered during a glide in a glider plane with glide ratio 1/30 from a height of 1500 m? (Neglect wind and thermal effects)
63 - Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"?
64 - The centre of gravity (CG) defines...
65 - The airspeed indicator is unserviceable. The aeroplane may only be operated...
66 - The term "centre of gravity" is defined as...
67 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Correction"?
68 - (For this question, please use annex PFP-062) According to ICAO, what symbol indicates a civil airport (not international airport) with paved runway?
question PFP-062.webp
69 - What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED)
70 - A sailplane being airtowed gets into an excessive high position behind the towing plane. What action by the glider pilot can prevent further danger for glider and towing plane?
71 - What has to be considered for the speed during approach and landing?
72 - The pressure compensation between wing upper and lower surfaces results in ...
73 - Given: TC: 183°; WCA: +011°; MH: 198°; CH: 200° What are the VAR and the DEV?
74 - "Foehn" conditions usually develop with...
75 - What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer?
76 - What is an indication for a macho attitude?
77 - With Central European Summer Time (CEST) given as UTC+2, what UTC time corresponds to 1600 CEST?
78 - Exceeding the maximum allowed aircraft mass is...
79 - Up to which altitude is an overflight prohibited according to the NOTAM? See figure (PFP-024)
question PFP-024.webp
80 - With different aircraft weights, the critical angle of attack is...
81 - In which way does the position of the centre of pressure move at a positively shaped profile with increasing angle of attack?
82 - During a flight, a flight plan can be filed at the...
83 - A pilot licence issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in...
84 - Which of the following is responsible for the blood coagulation?
85 - The "spread" is defined as...
86 - If there is any doubt about ambiguity, a time of 1620 is to be transmitted as...
87 - Number 3 in the drawing corresponds to the... See figure (PFA-010)
question PFA-010.webp
88 - An aircraft is flying with a true airspeed (TAS) of 180 kt and a headwind component of 25 kt for 2 hours and 25 minutes. The distance flown equals...
89 - The trim is used to...
90 - What landing technique is recommended for landing on a down-hill grass area?
91 - For what approximate time period can the short-time memory store information?
92 - Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert?
93 - What is the distance from VOR Brünkendorf (BKD) (53°02'N, 011°33'E) to Pritzwalk (EDBU) (53°11'N, 12°11'E)?
question NAV-031.webp
94 - What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Next report PAH"?
95 - What is the correct way to transmit the call sign OE-JVK?
96 - What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive angle of attack?
97 - What is the function of the blood platelets (thrombocytes)?
98 - Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?
99 - Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots?
100 - An aircraft is flying at a pressure altitude of 7000 feet with an outside air temperature (OAT) of +11°C. The QNH altitude is 6500 ft. The true altitude equals...
101 - At stationary glide and the same mass, what is the difference when using a thick airfoil instead of a thinner airfoil?
102 - What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?
103 - Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?
104 - Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?
105 - The trim tab at the elevator is deflected upwards. In which position is the corresponding indicator?
106 - The barometric altimeter indicates height above...
107 - Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing?
108 - The balance arm is the horizontal distance between...
109 - Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?
110 - What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "no"?
111 - Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory
112 - When commencing a steep turn, what has to be considered by the pilot?
113 - Complacency is a risk due to...
114 - From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure?
115 - What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"?
116 - What engine design at a Touring Motor Glider (TMG) results in least drag?
117 - What has to be checked before any change in direction during glide?
118 - What must be considered for cross-border flights?
119 - In which situation is it NOT possible to achieve a pressure compensation between the middle ear and the environment?
120 - After getting around a turning point, what should a glider pilot be prepared for?