Exam quiz SPL - Sailplane Pilot License

Question 1

What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable?

Accepted Answer

Adjust cabin temperature and prevent excessive bank

Answer

Avoid conversation and choose a higher airspeed

Answer

Switch on the heater blower and provide thermal blankets

Answer

Give additional oxygen and avoid low load factors

Question 2

With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?

Accepted Answer

Wake turbulence on or near the runway

Answer

Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.

Answer

Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.

Answer

Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.

Question 3

When do you expect wind shear?

Accepted Answer

During an inversion

Answer

When passing a warm front

Answer

During a summer day with calm winds

Answer

In calm wind in cold weather

Question 4

What does the term "Red-out" mean?

Accepted Answer

"Red vision" during negative g-loads

Answer

Falsified colour perception during sunrise and sunset

Answer

Anaemia caused by an injury

Answer

Rash during decompression sickness

Question 5

In what cases is visibility transmitted in kilometers?

Accepted Answer

Greater than 5 km

Answer

Greater than 10 km

Answer

Up to 5 km

Answer

Up to 10 km

Question 6

Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

Accepted Answer

Total air pressure

Answer

Dynamic air pressure

Answer

Cabin air pressure

Answer

Static air pressure

Question 7

The ratio of span and mean chord length is referred to as...

Accepted Answer

Aspect ratio.

Answer

Trapezium shape.

Answer

Tapering.

Answer

Wing sweep.

Question 8

What does a readability of 5 indicate?

Accepted Answer

The transmission is perfectly readable

Answer

The transmission is readable now and then

Answer

The transmission is readable but with difficulty

Answer

The transmission is unreadable

Question 9

During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?

Accepted Answer

Path is lower, IAS decreases

Answer

Path is higher, IAS increases

Answer

Path is lower, IAS increases

Answer

Path is higher, IAS decreases

Question 10

What is meant by the term "terrestrial navigation"?

Accepted Answer

Orientation by ground features during visual flight

Answer

Orientation by ground celestial object during visual flight

Answer

Orientation by instrument readings during visual flight

Answer

Orientation by GPS during visual flight

Question 11

Water ballast increases wing load by 40%. By what percentage does the minimum speed of the glider plane increase?

Accepted Answer

18%

Answer

100%

Answer

40%

Answer

200%

Question 12

What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED)

Accepted Answer

They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

Answer

They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide

Answer

Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding

Answer

They have the same status as ICAO Annexes

Question 13

If surrounded by airflow (v > 0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces...

Accepted Answer

Drag.

Answer

Drag and lift.

Answer

Lift without drag.

Answer

Constant drag at any speed.

Question 14

The rotational axis of the Earth runs through the...

Accepted Answer

Geographic North Pole and on the geographic South Pole.

Answer

Magnetic north pole and on the geographic South Pole.

Answer

Magnetic north pole and on the magnetic south pole.

Answer

Geographic North Pole and on the magnetic south pole.

Question 15

What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"?

Accepted Answer

Transponder Mandatory Zone

Answer

Transportation Management Zone

Answer

Touring Motorglider Zone

Answer

Traffic Management Zone

Question 16

A glider's trim lever is used to...

Accepted Answer

Reduce stick force on the elevator.

Answer

Reduce stick force on the ailerons.

Answer

Reduce stick force on the rudder.

Answer

Reduce the adverse yaw.

Question 17

The term "moment" with regard to a mass and balance calculation is referred to as...

Accepted Answer

Product of a mass and a balance arm.

Answer

Sum of a mass and a balance arm.

Answer

Difference of a mass and a balance arm.

Answer

Quotient of a mass and a balance arm.

Question 18

After getting around a turning point, what should a glider pilot be prepared for? (2,00 P.)

Accepted Answer

For a changed cloud picture due to the apparently changed position of the sun

Answer

For weakening thermals due to the progressing time

Answer

For a changed horizontal picture due to lower cloud bases

Answer

For increased cloud dissipation due to the progressing time

Question 19

How should a glider plane be parked when observing strong winds?

Accepted Answer

Windward wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders

Answer

Nose into the wind, keep and weigh tail down

Answer

Nose into the wind, extends air brakes, secure rudders

Answer

Downwind wing on the ground, weigh wing down, secure rudders

Question 20

Which abbreviation is used for the term "obstacle"?

Accepted Answer

OBST

Answer

OBTC

Answer

OST

Answer

OBS

Question 21

What weather conditions can be expected during "Foehn" on the windward side of a mountain range?

Accepted Answer

Layered clouds, mountains obscured, poor visibility, moderate or heavy rain

Answer

Dissipating clouds with unusual warming, accompanied by strong, gusty winds

Answer

Calm wind and forming of high stratus clouds (high fog)

Answer

Scattered cumulus clouds with showers and thunderstorms

Question 22

During a high altitude flight (6000 m MSL), the glider pilot realizes that oxygen will be consumed within a few minutes. What actions should be taken by the glider pilot?

Accepted Answer

Extend spoiler flaps, descent with maximum permissable speed

Answer

After depletion of oxygen, stay at that altitude no longer than 30 min

Answer

At first indication of hypoxia, commence descent with maximum allowed speed

Answer

Reduce oxygen flow by breathing slowly

Question 23

The term "flight time" is defined as...

Accepted Answer

The total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

Answer

The period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown.

Answer

The period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing.

Answer

The total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights.

Question 24

Which optical illusion might be caused by a runway with an upslope during the approach?

Accepted Answer

The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too high and therefore descents below the regular glide slope

Answer

The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too low and therefore approaches the runway above the regular glide slope

Answer

The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too slow and speeds up above the normal approach speed

Answer

The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too fast and reduces the speed below the normal approach speed

Question 25

Baggage and cargo must be properly stowed and fastened, otherwise a shift of the cargo may cause...

Accepted Answer

Uncontrollable attitudes, structural damage, risk of injuries.

Answer

Calculable instability if the C.G. is shifting by less than 10 %.

Answer

Continuous attitudes which can be corrected by the pilot using the flight controls.

Answer

Structural damage, angle of attack stability, velocity stability.

Question 26

The term "center of gravity" is defined as...

Accepted Answer

Half the distance between the neutral point and the datum line.

Answer

Another designation for the neutral point.

Answer

The heaviest point on an aeroplane.

Question 27

What distance corresponds to one degree difference in latitude along any degree of longitude?

Accepted Answer

60 NM

Answer

30 NM

Answer

60 km

Answer

1 NM

Question 28

The trim is used to...

Accepted Answer

Adapt the control force.

Answer

Increase adverse yaw.

Answer

Move the centre of gravity

Answer

Lock control elements.

Question 29

SIGMET warnings are issued for...

Accepted Answer

FIRs / UIRs.

Answer

Specific routings.

Answer

Countries.

Answer

Airports.

Question 30

What is the purpose of "interception lines" in visual navigation?

Accepted Answer

They are used as easily recognizable guidance upon a possible loss of orientation

Answer

They help to continue the flight when flight visibility drops below VFR minima

Answer

To mark the next available en-route airport during the flight

Answer

To visualize the range limitation from the departure aerodrome

Question 31

Given: True course from A to B: 352°. Ground distance: 100 NM. GS: 107 kt. Estimated time of departure (ETD): 0933 UTC. The estimated time of arrival (ETA) is...

Accepted Answer

1029 UTC.

Answer

1045 UTC.

Answer

1129 UTC.

Answer

1146 UTC.

Question 32

Pressure drag, interference drag and friction drag belong to the group of the...

Accepted Answer

Parasite drag

Answer

Main resistance.

Answer

Induced drag.

Answer

Total drag.

Question 33

With decreasing air density the airflow speed increases at stall speed (TAS) and vice verca. How has a final approach to be conducted on a hot summer day?

Accepted Answer

With unchanged speed indication (IAS)

Answer

With increased speed indication (IAS)

Answer

With decreased speed indication (IAS)

Answer

With additional speed according POH

Question 34

What is the best combination of traits with respect to the individual attitude and behaviour for a pilot?

Accepted Answer

Extroverted - stable

Answer

Introverted - stable

Answer

Introverted - unstable

Answer

Extroverted - unstable

Question 35

Which phrase is to be used when a pilot wants the tower to know that he is ready for take-off?

Accepted Answer

Ready for departure

Answer

Request take-off

Answer

Ready for start-up

Answer

Ready

Question 36

5500 m equal...

Accepted Answer

18000 ft.

Answer

30000 ft.

Answer

7500 ft.

Answer

10000 ft.

Question 37

What is the parallax error?

Accepted Answer

Wrong interpretation of instruments caused by the angle of vision

Answer

Misperception of speed during taxiing

Answer

Long-sightedness due to aging especially during night

Answer

A decoding error in communication between pilots

Question 38

What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air, is forced to rise upslope of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailling wind?

Accepted Answer

Orographic fog

Answer

Advection fog

Answer

Steaming fog

Answer

Radiation fog

Question 39

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?

Accepted Answer

Cyanose

Answer

Disturbance of consciousness

Answer

Spasm

Answer

Tingling

Question 40

Which information from a ground station does not require readback?

Accepted Answer

Wind

Answer

Runway in use

Answer

Altitude

Answer

SSR-Code

Question 41

Complacency is a risk due to...

Accepted Answer

Increased cockpit automation.

Answer

The high error rate of technical systems.

Answer

The high number of mistakes normally made by humans.

Answer

Better training options for young pilots.

Question 42

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125?

Accepted Answer

8000 m

Answer

1500 m

Answer

5000 m

Answer

3000 m

Question 43

What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?

Accepted Answer

Inclination of earth's magnetic field lines

Answer

Acceleration of the airplane

Answer

Temperature variations

Answer

Deviation in the cockpit

Question 44

How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated?

Accepted Answer

Manually through rods and control cables

Answer

Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators

Answer

Electrically through fly-by-wire

Answer

Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors

Question 45

What pattern can be found at the stagnation point?

Accepted Answer

Streamlines are divided into airflow above and below the profile

Answer

The boundary layer starts separating on the upper surface of the profile

Answer

All aerodynamic forces can be considered as attacking at this single point

Answer

The laminar boundary layer changes into a turbulent boundary layer

Question 46

What negative impacts may be expected during circling overhead industrial facilities?

Accepted Answer

Health impairments by pollutants, reduced visibilty and turbulences

Answer

Strong electrostatic charging and deterioration in radio communication

Answer

Very poor visibility of only few hundred meters and heavy precipitation

Answer

Extended, strong downwind areas on the lee side of the facility

Question 47

The center of gravity (CG) defines...

Accepted Answer

The point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.

Answer

The product of mass and balance arm

Answer

The point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced.

Answer

The point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced.

Question 48

Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?

Accepted Answer

Restricted area

Answer

No-fly zone

Answer

Prohibited area

Answer

Dangerous area

Question 49

When a pilot gets into a strong downwind area during slope soaring, what action should be recommanded?

Accepted Answer

Increase speed and head away from the ridge

Answer

Contunue flight, downwinds around mountains only occur shortly

Answer

Increase speed and conduct landing parallel to ridge

Answer

Increase speed and get closer to the ridge

Question 50

What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75?

Accepted Answer

5000 m

Answer

8000 m

Answer

1500 m

Answer

3000 m

Question 51

An energy-compensated vertical speed inicator (VSI) shows during stationary glide the vertical speed...

Accepted Answer

Of the airmass flown through.

Answer

Of the glider through surrounding air

Answer

Of the glider plus movement of the air

Answer

Of the glider minus movement of the air.

Question 52

The balance arm is the horizontal distance between...

Accepted Answer

The C.G. of a mass and the datum line.

Answer

The C.G. of a mass and the rear C.G. limit.

Answer

The front C.G. limit and the datum line

Answer

The front C.G. limit and the rear C.G. limit.

Question 53

How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position?

Accepted Answer

Four

Answer

Two

Answer

Three

Answer

Five

Question 54

What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right heading 220 degrees, wind 090 degrees, 5 knots, runway 12, cleared for take-off"?

Accepted Answer

DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, runway 12, cleared for take-off

Answer

DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots

Answer

DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off

Answer

DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, wilco, heading 220 degrees, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off

Question 55

Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?

Accepted Answer

Elliptical shape

Answer

Rectangular shape

Answer

Trapezoidal shape

Answer

Double trapezoidal shape

Question 56

The upper limit of LO R 4 equals... See annex (PFP-030) Siehe Anlage 2

Accepted Answer

4.500 ft MSL

Answer

1.500 ft AGL

Answer

4.500 ft AGL.

Answer

1.500 ft MSL.

Question 57

Which statement about lift and angle of attack is correct?

Accepted Answer

Increasing the angle of attack too far may result in a loss of lift and an airflow separation

Answer

Increasing the angle of attack results in less lift being generated by the aerofoil

Answer

Decreasing the angle of attack results in more drag being generated by the aerofoil

Answer

Too large angles of attack can lead to an exponential increase in lift

Question 58

At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)?

Accepted Answer

18000 ft

Answer

22000 ft

Answer

10000 ft

Answer

5000 ft

Question 59

The distance from 'A' to 'B' measures 120 NM. At a distance of 55 NM from 'A' the pilot realizes a deviation of 7 NM to the right. What approximate course change must be made to reach 'B' directly?

Accepted Answer

14° left

Answer

6° left

Answer

8° left

Answer

15° left

Question 60

A flight is called a "visual flight", if the...

Accepted Answer

Flight is conducted under visual flight rules.

Answer

Visibility in flight is more than 5 km.

Answer

Visibility in flight is more than 8 km.

Answer

Flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.

Question 61

The term 'isogonal' or 'isogonic line' is defined as a line on an aeronautical chart, connecting all points with the same value of...

Accepted Answer

Variation.

Answer

Heading.

Answer

Deviation

Answer

Inclination.

Question 62

Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?

Accepted Answer

ATC (air traffic control)

Answer

AIS (aeronautical information service)

Answer

ALR (alerting service)

Answer

FIS (flight information service)

Question 63

Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QFE?

Accepted Answer

Altitude in relation to the air pressure at the reference airfield

Answer

Altitude in relation to the 1013.25 hPa datum

Answer

Altitude in relation to mean sea level

Answer

Altitude in relation to the highest elevation within 10 km

Question 64

An aircraft is flying at a pressure altitude of 7000 feet with an outside air temperature (OAT) of +21°C. The QNH altitude is 6500 ft. The true altitude equals...

Accepted Answer

7000 ft.

Answer

6500 ft

Answer

6250 ft.

Answer

6750 ft.

SPL - Sailplane Pilot License Exam Simulation

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