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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Exam Simulation

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used
2 - Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic systems ? 1. Qualitative decision-making 2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded 4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)
3 - For aircraft call sign "Easy G-ABCD" the correct abbreviation is:
4 - Must a 'general call' be acknowledged'?
5 - COSPAS-SARSAT is:
6 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
7 - 'The Bends' as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
8 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
9 - On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type: 1) AC generator over-voltage 2) AC generator under-voltage 3) over-current 4) over-speed 5) under-frequency 6) undue vibration of AC generators. The combination of correct statements is:
10 - The message to an aeronautical ground station 'please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045' is:
11 - Tetanus is transmitted through:
12 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4. Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?
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13 - During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant):
14 - When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include?
15 - Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
16 - The diameter of a typical tornado is
17 - By what percentage does the lift increase in a level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight?
18 - Which of the following will probably not result in a deviation change on a DRC:
19 - Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
20 - During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended that:
21 - The difference between IAS and TAS will:
22 - From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
23 - How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75 departure aerodrome elevation 1500' QNH = 1023 hPa temperature = ISA 1 hPa = 30'
24 - In a twin engine jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
25 - Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 Mach
26 - The passenger oxygen mask will supply:
27 - Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return. The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is:
28 - Given: TAS = 205 kt, HDG (T) = 180°, W/V = 240/25kt. Calculate the drift and GS?
29 - Given: Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa. What is the approximate airport pressure altitude? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
30 - Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported:
31 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
32 - In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
33 - The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
34 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
35 - The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0' pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: '± 0.2 % / 1000' field elevation'; '± 0.1 % / °C from standard temperature' '- 1 % with wing anti-ice'; '- 0.5% with engine anti-ice'. The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1000', 17°C; QNH 1013.25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is:
36 - To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
37 - An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are?
38 - A TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
39 - Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
40 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
41 - Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
42 - Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg. Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg. The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
43 - A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
44 - If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter
45 - During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the:
46 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
47 - A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind
48 - For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:
49 - What does the instruction 'Orbit right' mean?
50 - Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
51 - An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:
52 - When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (e.g. after loss of cabin heating) his / her demand for oxygen will be:
53 - From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take-off mass and traffic load is respectively:
54 - The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W).Comparing the initial track (T) at 070°00'W and the final track (T) at 080°00'W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately:
55 - At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
56 - Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are 1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system 2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned 3. setting of extinguishing systems 4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves 5. isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
57 - The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
58 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
59 - A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to:
60 - What does the abbreviation 'HJ' mean?
61 - The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
62 - General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
63 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of words twice''?
64 - The principle of FAIL SAFE design of an aircraft is based on the:
65 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
66 - Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
67 - See TRM (VFR), Aberdeen (Dyce) Information Page (19-6). What is the designated departure route when using Runway 23 in bad weather and/or low visibility?
68 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
69 - The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in
70 - The purpose of the decision point procedure is:
71 - The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym:
72 - The speed of sound at the sea level in standard atmosphere is:
73 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
74 - An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:
75 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
76 - According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
77 - For VFR operating minima, the operator shall ensure that:
78 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
79 - Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
80 - A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
81 - In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
82 - Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600?
83 - When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity
84 - Stress management programmes usually involve:
85 - Given: AD = Air distance GD = Ground distance TAS = True Airspeed GS = Groundspeed. Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?
86 - An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155 kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 fpm to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2000' (QNH 1030 hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?
87 - The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
88 - An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
89 - Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out:
90 - Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?
91 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'I should like to know...' or 'I wish to obtain...'?
92 - How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind / airflow V?
question pof6.webp
93 - The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
94 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
95 - What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message?
96 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
97 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
98 - What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:
99 - A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by:
100 - Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct?
101 - A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate:
102 - What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?
103 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
104 - The function of the rudder limiter system is:
105 - Torque can be determined by measuring the computed:
106 - Given: FL 330 long range cruise OAT -63°C gross mass 50 500 kg. Find: true airspeed (TAS)
107 - A message preceded by the phrase 'Transmitting blind due to receiver failure' shall be transmitted:
108 - The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence of:
109 - The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
110 - Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
111 - On the readability scale what does 'Readability 5' mean:
112 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
113 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
114 - A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:
115 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
116 - The maximum certificated take-off mass is:
117 - In the ATC flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as:
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118 - From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at:
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119 - The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by - a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM - a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature. The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
120 - Refer to figure: Two consecutive waypoints of a flight plan are Stornoway VOR/DME (N58°12,4', W006°11,0') and Glasgow VOR/DME (N55°52,2', W 004°26,7). During the flight the Actual Time Over Stornoway is 11:15 UTC and Estimated Time Over Glasgow is 11:38 UTC. At 11:21 UTC the fix of the aircraft is exactly over reporting point RONAR. What is the Revised UTC over Glasgow, based on this last fix?
question gnav25.webp
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