Exam quiz FAA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Airplane

Question 1

You want your wind ground track and ____________to be the same

Accepted Answer

Course

Answer

Heading

Answer

Drift angle

Question 2

(Refer to figure 72.) What does the vertical line connecting points E and F represent on the airspeed indicator?

Accepted Answer

The red line

Answer

The top of the normal operating range

Answer

The top of the white arc

Question 3

(Refer to figure 72.) The positive limit load factor is represented by the

Accepted Answer

horizontal dashed line from C to point E

Answer

vertical solid line from D to G

Answer

vertical dashed line from E to F

Question 4

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?

Accepted Answer

Class D, which then becomes Class E

Answer

Class D, which then becomes Class C

Answer

Class B

Question 5

Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's

Accepted Answer

aerodynamic balance and controllability

Answer

lift/drag ratio

Answer

lifting capacity

Question 6

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

Accepted Answer

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

Answer

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

Answer

The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

Question 7

An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

Accepted Answer

experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance

Answer

experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction

Answer

require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient

Question 8

While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

Accepted Answer

121.5 MHz

Answer

122.5 MHz

Answer

128.725 MHz

Question 9

The definition of nighttime is

Accepted Answer

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

Answer

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

Answer

sunset to sunrise

Question 10

What input is required to maintain altitude during steep turns?

Accepted Answer

Back pressure on the yoke

Answer

Aileron in the opposite direction of the turn

Answer

Increase power

Question 11

What would be a symptom of hyperventilation?

Accepted Answer

A feeling of suffocation and drowsiness

Answer

Heightened awareness and feeling of well being

Answer

Decreased breathing rate and depth

Question 12

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

Accepted Answer

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

Answer

via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made

Answer

via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9

Question 13

Why should pilots always fly a stabilized approach?

Accepted Answer

Reduces pilot workload

Answer

Eliminates the need to use a checklist

Answer

Requires less flaps to be used during landing

Question 14

(Refer to figure 68.) On the wind triangle, the line from point C to B represents:

Accepted Answer

Groundspeed and true course

Answer

Airspeed and heading

Answer

True heading and groundspeed

Question 15

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

Accepted Answer

experience avionics equipment failure

Answer

probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment

Answer

probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current

Question 16

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

Accepted Answer

Dissipating

Answer

Mature

Answer

Cumulus

Question 17

The common heading indicator requires periodic adjustment. It is important to check its indications frequently against the:

Accepted Answer

Magnetic compass

Answer

Attitude indicator

Answer

Turn and bank indicator

Question 18

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

Accepted Answer

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

Answer

enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

Answer

fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

Question 19

What is the purpose of a runway hold position marking on a taxiway?

Accepted Answer

Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

Answer

Identifies areas where aircraft are prohibited

Answer

Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

Question 20

A stall occurs when:

Accepted Answer

The smooth airflow over the wing becomes turbulent reducing lift

Answer

The airplane’s speed is too slow for straight and level flight

Answer

The nose of the airplane is too high above the horizon

Question 21

(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?

Accepted Answer

Left aileron up, elevator neutral

Answer

Left aileron up, elevator down

Answer

Left aileron down, elevator neutral

Question 22

Under what circumstances might an airport beacon be in operation during the day at an airport with an air traffic control tower?

Accepted Answer

When ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet

Answer

The airport beacon only operates between sunrise and sunset and never during daylight hours

Answer

When at least one runway is closed

Question 23

How is the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration symbolized?

Accepted Answer

VS0

Answer

VN0

Answer

Red radial line

Question 24

Excessively high engine temperatures will

Accepted Answer

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

Answer

not appreciably affect an aircraft engine

Answer

cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins

Question 25

Why is it a good idea to file a VFR flight plan with FSS?

Accepted Answer

To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency

Answer

To provide traffic reports with Flight Service

Answer

You are required to do so when flying beyond 25 NM from an airport

Question 26

The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earth’s surface, are:

Accepted Answer

Troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere

Answer

Troposphere, mesosphere, and stratosphere

Answer

Stratosphere, mesosphere, and troposphere

Question 27

An airplane and a glider are on a head-on collision course. What should each pilot do?

Accepted Answer

Both pilots should give way to the right

Answer

The airplane pilot should give way to the left

Answer

The glider pilot should give way to the right

Question 28

On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

Accepted Answer

No notification or report is required

Answer

An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office

Answer

A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days

Question 29

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

Accepted Answer

longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

Answer

direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway

Answer

downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift

Question 30

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

Accepted Answer

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability, and ADS-B out equipment

Answer

an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver

Answer

instruments and equipment required for IFR operations

Question 31

Maneuvering speed is:

Accepted Answer

Not marked on the airspeed indicator

Answer

The top of the green arc on the airspeed indicator

Answer

Represented by the red line on the airspeed indicator

Question 32

What is likely to occur if you lift off the runway before reaching rotation speed due to ground effect?

Accepted Answer

Inability to climb

Answer

Increase in stability

Answer

Decrease in thrust required to maintain flight

Question 33

(Refer to figure 50.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

Accepted Answer

Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

Answer

Right-hand traffic on Runway 18

Answer

Right-hand traffic on Runway 9

Question 34

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

Accepted Answer

immediately

Answer

within 48 hours

Answer

within 7 days

Question 35

At what minimum distance should a pilot report a near midair collision to the FAA?

Accepted Answer

500 feet

Answer

600 feet

Answer

700 feet

Question 36

What would happen if your airplane experienced a complete electrical failure during flight?

Accepted Answer

The airplane will lose all electrical equipment

Answer

The engine ignition system will fail

Answer

The engine driven fuel pump will fail

Question 37

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Accepted Answer

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

Answer

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

Answer

The other aircraft is crossing to the right

Question 38

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Accepted Answer

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

Answer

Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures

Answer

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries

Question 39

What can you do to improve collision avoidance while in level cruise or descending in busy airspace?

Accepted Answer

Make small, gentle banking turns to scan the area

Answer

Contact the nearest FSS before making altitude changes

Answer

Continue along the runway centerline after departure

Question 40

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Accepted Answer

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

Answer

Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind

Answer

Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath

Question 41

A global positioning system will give your exact geographical position

Accepted Answer

at any point on the globe

Answer

only in the northern hemisphere

Answer

only at any point in the contiguous States

Question 42

What is the objective of a stabilized approach?

Accepted Answer

The airplane should be on speed, in trim, configured for landing, tracking the extended centerline of the runway, and established in a constant angle of descent toward an aiming point on the runway

Answer

To maintain an airspeed +/- 20 knots and a descent rate of around 1,000 fpm

Answer

To be positioned and fully configured on the final approach leg at no less than 3 NM from the runway threshold

Question 43

When flying the crosswind leg of a rectangular course the airplane must be:

Accepted Answer

Crabbed into the wind

Answer

Flown without any crab

Answer

Crabbed away from the wind

Question 44

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

Accepted Answer

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

Answer

Landing at an airport with an operating control tower

Answer

Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace

Question 45

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Accepted Answer

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer

Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions

Question 46

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

Accepted Answer

The other aircraft is flying away from you

Answer

The other aircraft is crossing to the right

Answer

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

Question 47

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

Accepted Answer

121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Answer

123.0 and 119.0 MHz

Answer

118.0 and 118.8 MHz

Question 48

In flying an S-Turn, the greatest amount of crab occurs:

Accepted Answer

At the point where the airplane is directly crosswind

Answer

As the airplane turns upwind

Answer

At a point when the airplane turns directly downwind

Question 49

(Refer to figure 28, illustration 6.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

Accepted Answer

West

Answer

East

Answer

North

Question 50

What effect will landing with a tailwind have during an engine-out approach and landing?

Accepted Answer

Increased landing distance

Answer

Decreased landing distance

Answer

Results in lower energy after the touchdown

Question 51

(Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

Accepted Answer

122.9 MHz

Answer

123.0 MHz

Answer

122.8 MHz

Question 52

Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are:

Accepted Answer

Below 70 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) and the relative humidity is above 80 percent

Answer

Above 105 degrees Fahrenheit (°F)

Answer

Below 20 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 53

A VOR test facility—VOT—transmits a:

Accepted Answer

360 degree radial in all directions

Answer

360 degree radial to a designated position on the airport

Answer

180 degree radial in all directions

Question 54

Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

Accepted Answer

Special Notices section of the Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)

Answer

14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules

Answer

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

Question 55

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

Accepted Answer

stall at a higher airspeed

Answer

have a tendency to spin

Answer

be more difficult to control

Question 56

Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

Accepted Answer

High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude

Answer

Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude

Answer

High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude

Question 57

If you land without the use of flaps, the approach will be:

Accepted Answer

Faster and shallower

Answer

Slower and steeper

Answer

Slower and shallower

Question 58

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Accepted Answer

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

Answer

Ailerons neutral

Answer

Aileron down on the downwind side

Question 59

The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates

Accepted Answer

runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

Answer

the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

Answer

a hold line from a taxiway to a runway

Question 60

What is the critical angle of attack?

Accepted Answer

The point at which the wing will stall

Answer

The angle of attack that will achieve the greatest climb speed at a given altitude

Answer

The pitch angle that will create the best climb performance

Exam Simulation - FAA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Airplane

Quiz FAA PPL(A) - Private Pilot Airplane 60 questions on 120 minutes