1 - What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry out two dimensional operation?
2 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
3 - According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach?
4 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
5 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
6 - What is the aircraft track?
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7 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
8 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
9 - In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
10 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a modern transport aircraft respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
11 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
12 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
13 - ICAO recommendations are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
14 - Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?
15 - Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
16 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
17 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
18 - The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
19 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
20 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
21 - TVOR is a
22 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
23 - A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
24 - What is a VDF referenced to?
25 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
26 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
27 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
28 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
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29 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
30 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
31 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
32 - What is a practical advantage of the NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' receiver technique?
33 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
34 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
35 - The middle marker transmits on:
36 - The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
37 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
38 - What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?
39 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
40 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
41 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
42 - Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder control panel?
43 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
44 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
45 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
46 - The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
47 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
48 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
49 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
50 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
51 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
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52 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
53 - Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
54 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
55 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)..... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii).... NM minimum from the threshold.
56 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
57 - What drift is being experienced?
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58 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
59 - In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
60 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
61 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
62 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
63 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
64 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
65 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
66 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
67 - Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
68 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
69 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
70 - Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
71 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
72 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
73 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
74 - What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
75 - Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
76 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
77 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
78 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
79 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
80 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
81 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
82 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
83 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
84 - In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant squared radiation pattern.
85 - An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
86 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
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87 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
88 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
89 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
90 - Which frequency band includes the GPS L1 civil signal used by GNSS receivers?
91 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
92 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
93 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
94 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
95 - The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
96 - On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
97 - In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
98 - A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
99 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
100 - In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
101 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
102 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
103 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
104 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
105 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
106 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
107 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
108 - Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
109 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
110 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
111 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
112 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
113 - The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
114 - An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing almost full right deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
115 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
116 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
117 - What is the heading bug selected to?
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118 - The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
119 - An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
120 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?