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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject Change Questions
1 - Interception. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
2 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
3 - What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery?
4 - During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates:
5 - On a polar stereographic chart the scale at the pole is 1:5.000.000. Calculate the scale of the chart at 65°N:
6 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
7 - A Traffic Service provides:
8 - How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane?
9 - Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:
10 - Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:
11 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
12 - The ventilation system in a fuel tank:
13 - Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?
14 - When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur:
15 - For aircraft call sign "Easy G-ABCD" the correct abbreviation is:
16 - A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:
17 - To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of:
18 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual Amsterdam, Schiphol (Plate 10- 3): Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
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19 - Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 1. flying in IMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC into VMC 4. approaching over still water at night
20 - The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include?
21 - The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
22 - An IFR aircraft in controlled airspace experiences complete radio communication failure after departure. Which action is the current general priority?
23 - Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue? 1. Diminished accommodation 2. Slowed reactions 3. Long-term memory access problems 4. Being over-talkative 5. Diminished motor skills
24 - In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
25 - A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:
26 - A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:
27 - A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of:
28 - At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?
29 - A Basic Service is intended to provide:
30 - Main cabin temperature is:
31 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
32 - The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
33 - Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 300?
34 - You are flying from A (30°S 20°E) to B (30°S 30°W). What is the approximate final GC track?
35 - Convective clouds are formed
36 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:
37 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'I understand your message and will comply with it':
38 - What is the correct way of expressing visibility?
39 - Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
40 - In order to align an IRS, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This enables the IRS to: 1 - compare the computed latitude with the one entered by the pilot 2 - compare the computed longitude with the one entered by the pilot 3 - know the longitude. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
41 - An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
42 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 150 NM True track 142 W/V 200/15 TAS 132 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
43 - What does the abbreviation 'AIS' mean?
44 - In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
45 - An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
46 - Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? 1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. 2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.
47 - The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects
48 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
49 - The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
50 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
51 - Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the detection of angular acceleration?
52 - The range of movement of a control surface is limited by:
53 - What is meant by the phrase 'readability 4'?
54 - Total pressure is: (rho = density)
55 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Wait and I will call you'?
56 - Concerning the flight warning system (FWS), advisory messages may be:
57 - The stall speed:
58 - Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof?
59 - During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
60 - Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence?
61 - The reference about which centre of gravity moments are taken is the
62 - Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from
63 - When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible:
64 - Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
65 - A constant headwind:
66 - Which weather condition will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid?
67 - How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a modern transport aircraft respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
68 - From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities?
69 - Given: TAS = 125 kt, True HDG = 355°, W/V = 320°(T)/30kt. Calculate the true track and GS?
70 - The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a:
71 - What does the term 'air-ground communication' mean?
72 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual E(LO)1. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940?
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73 - The validity period of a night-time organised track system in NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) is normally at 30°W, between:
74 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
75 - The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
76 - Haemoglobin has an affinity for carbon monoxide of _______ times over oxygen
77 - At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
78 - Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?
79 - Without any external action, the axis of a free gyroscope is fixed with reference to:
80 - What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E?
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81 - What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence:
82 - If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
83 - In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
84 - One purpose of compass calibration is to determine the deviation:
85 - The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport aeroplane is within the following range:
86 - In case of engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
87 - Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
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88 - You are flying from A (50°N 10°W) to B (58°N 02°E). If initial great circle track is 047°(T) what is final great circle track?
89 - Among the following, select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic:
90 - A barotrauma of the middle ear is:
91 - From summer to winter the average geographic position of the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves
92 - On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean?
93 - A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by:
94 - Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are: 1. nervousness and chanellized attention 2. being rough at the controls 3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual 4. airsickness, lack of sleep
95 - VLE is the maximum:
96 - Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which:
97 - If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move:
98 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
99 - An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is:
100 - Refer to the Student Pilot Route Manual - 5 AT (HI) The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be:
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101 - Considering an airspeed indicator, a second striped needle, if installed, indicates:
102 - Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by
103 - The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aircraft is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used?
104 - A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
105 - Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheel The combination containing all the correct statements is:
106 - For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg. Fuel flow for cruise 10000 kg/h. Fuel flow for holding 8000 kg/h. Alternate fuel 10200 kg. Planned flight time to destination 6 h. Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m. The minimum ramp fuel required is:
107 - The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
108 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
109 - The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:
110 - Under EASA Air OPS Part-CAT (CAT.IDE.A.250), the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required in the passenger compartment is determined by the aeroplane's:
111 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
112 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 140 NM GS Out 90 kt GS Home 80 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
113 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
114 - Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
115 - An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
116 - Indication of Mach number is obtained from:
117 - A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
118 - The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission:
119 - An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
120 - Regarding centre of gravity position and longitudinal stability, which of the following statements is correct?
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