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Exam Simulation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Quiz ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as: 1 - the descent rate 2 - the climb rate 3 - the aircraft configuration 4 - the selected engine rpm. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2 - In relation to an aircraft, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aircraft structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aircraft configuration. Its value is
3 - An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt, Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt, Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt, Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN. The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
4 - According to the 'Aerodrome Reference Code', the 'Code Letter E' shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
5 - What shall the pilot's readback be for 'climb to 2500 feet':
6 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
7 - If all Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS) become unserviceable during a flight in NAT HLA and no ATC instruction is received, the crew should consider:
8 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
9 - The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached:
10 - On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by:
11 - Where is the projection of the polar front jet on the surface stream most likely to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
12 - What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
13 - A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g = 10 m/s²). The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is:
14 - You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.2 hPa)?
15 - The Mach trim system allows to:
16 - The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
17 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
18 - Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
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19 - How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
20 - Pilot stress reactions:
21 - Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:
22 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
23 - The cabin rate of descent:
24 - Refer to the General Student Pilot Route Manual - VFR Chart ED-4 Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the distance.
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25 - In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
26 - At a certain position, the temperature at 300 hPa is -48°C and the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
27 - The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
28 - Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
29 - The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
30 - When an aircraft station receives the call 'ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended' it is requested:
31 - An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the magnetic variation 12°W?
32 - To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
33 - For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
34 - Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission?
35 - In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub- tropical jet streams are usually located
36 - An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
37 - For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg. Fuel flow for cruise 10000 kg/h. Fuel flow for holding 8000 kg/h. Alternate fuel 10200 kg. Planned flight time to destination 6 h. Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m. The minimum ramp fuel required is:
38 - What does the abbreviation 'RVR' mean?
39 - For a fixed-pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of attack will:
40 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
41 - ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot:
42 - Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode Selector switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System?
43 - In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be:
44 - From your cruising altitude at FL 240, you want to descend to flight level 100. Your transmission to the radar controller is:
45 - If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning 'DON'T SINK' (twice), it is because:
46 - Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
47 - On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitching moment for which CL = 0 is:
48 - Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?
49 - Lights indicating the possible need for future corrective action must be:
50 - Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left, Relative bearing of NDB 270°. What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
51 - Given: Distance from departure to destination 150 NM True track 142 W/V 200/15 TAS 132 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
52 - What does the instruction 'Vacate left' mean?
53 - How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:
54 - Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes 'NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT'. In this case 'NUMBER' means:
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55 - The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
56 - The Coriolis effect in spatial disorientation occurs as a result of:
57 - Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it occur? 1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution 2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities 3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he/she faces.
58 - Interception. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A
59 - To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller:
60 - Given: Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 h TAS: 115 kt Ground Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
61 - Which Q-code is used to report altitude?
62 - What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:
63 - A Deconfliction Service is available to:
64 - What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
65 - The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details:
66 - Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
67 - When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
68 - What does 'SELCAL' mean?
69 - When the term 'Scattered' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
70 - Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message?
71 - Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
72 - On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from:
73 - A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T). What is the longitude of B?
74 - TVOR is a
75 - A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:
76 - What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
77 - What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?
78 - For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
79 - What shall the pilot's read back be for 'Climb to FL 280':
80 - Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-in. A so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
81 - The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:
82 - The initiation of an automatic go-around can be:
83 - SSR - Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code
84 - The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:
85 - My message will be more effective and understandable if I:
86 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
87 - Your aircraft and an intruding traffic are both TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS can generate:
88 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
89 - Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that
90 - Consider the following statements on the great circle and the rhumb line running through the same two positions:
91 - Large hail stones
92 - Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:
93 - When shall the phrase 'Take-off' be used by a pilot:
94 - The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
95 - A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:
96 - Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheel The combination containing all the correct statements is:
97 - In the ATC flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:
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98 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
99 - If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
100 - If, in the event of a failure, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system, such an automatic landing system is considered as:
101 - In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
102 - In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
103 - A minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Unless a different distance is specified, this altitude is valid within:
104 - Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
105 - Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
106 - The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
107 - What does the word 'report' mean?
108 - Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?
109 - Symptoms of decompression sickness
110 - The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:
111 - Which of the following calls is a 'general call'?
112 - Fastair 345 has been instructed 'Standby 118.9 for TOWER'. What does this instruction mean?
113 - We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:
114 - What does the abbreviation 'HJ' mean?
115 - Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1: 2 000 000?
116 - On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean?
117 - 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
118 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
119 - Given: TAS = 190 kt, True HDG = 085°, W/V = 110°(T)/50kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS?
120 - Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least:
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