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Exam simulation Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Performance 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
2 - The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
3 - Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
4 - With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by 'equivalent gross weight at engine failure'?
5 - For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed'?
6 - The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when:
7 - The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is:
8 - At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within:
9 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available?
10 - If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be:
11 - The force exactly opposing and balance lift in a glide descent is:
12 - On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass:
13 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is:
14 - Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
15 - The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
16 - Which data can be extracted from buffet onset boundary data?
17 - With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
18 - Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
19 - The speed for maximum endurance
20 - During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35' above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating; - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
21 - When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component:
22 - After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed?
23 - The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
24 - A constant headwind:
25 - Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)?
26 - To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
27 - Following a take-off determined by the 50' (15 m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10000 m from the 50' clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
28 - Which of the following is true according to regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
29 - On a dry runway the accelerate-stop distance is increased:
30 - During take-off the third segment begins:
31 - According to PART-CAT, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
32 - In twin-jet drift-down performance data, why can the curve for 35 000 kg gross mass start at approximately 4 minutes at FL 370?
33 - If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would:
34 - An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio
35 - What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
36 - The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
37 - Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:
38 - During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
39 - In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on:
40 - The optimum altitude:
41 - Given the following take-off mass limits in kg: flaps 0°/10°/15° runway limit 4100/4400/4600, climb limit 4700/4500/4200, and structural take-off mass limit 4300. Which is the maximum permitted take-off mass?
42 - According to PART-CAT, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is:
43 - Density Altitude:
44 - Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and / or clearway?
45 - In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
46 - Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1?
47 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT -15 °C; Pressure Altitude: 4000'; RWY 12R Wind 080/12 KT; Take-off Mass: 4000 lbs; Runway Surface: tarred and dry. What is the minimum runway length? No stopway or clearway is available.
question perf2.webp
48 - At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 KT in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
49 - For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to:
50 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
51 - The rate of climb:
52 - In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
53 - In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA:
54 - Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
55 - Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
56 - The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
57 - If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
58 - Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
59 - Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
60 - When determining the maximum landing mass of a turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway)
61 - With a true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
62 - The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
63 - The following parameters affect the take-off ground run: 1. decreasing take-off mass 2. increasing take-off mass 3. increasing density 4. decreasing density 5. increasing flap setting 6. decreasing flap setting 7. increasing pressure altitude 8. decreasing pressure altitude. Which parameters will decrease the take-off ground run?
64 - If accelerate-stop distance data assume take-off power is set before brake release, will the published accelerate-stop distance still be achieved if the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
65 - Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
66 - A runway is contaminated by a 0.5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
67 - ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of:
68 - The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
69 - Below the optimum cruise altitude:
70 - VX is:
71 - What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
72 - Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii)........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii).........
73 - If there is a tailwind, the climb limited TOM will:
74 - Field length is balanced when:
75 - Which of the following will decrease V1?
76 - Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
77 - The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:
78 - The drift down requirements are based on:
79 - The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
80 - Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
81 - During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
82 - The optimum cruise altitude increases
83 - Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
84 - The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
85 - Which factor determines the maximum flight altitude represented by buffet onset boundary data?
86 - An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
87 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag:
88 - The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
89 - An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
90 - What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only)?
91 - As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:
92 - The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
93 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
94 - Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?
95 - In relation to take-off mass limitations, which statement is correct?
96 - The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
97 - The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
98 - Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
99 - A headwind will:
100 - In case of an engine failure recognized below V1:
101 - Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS?
102 - What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
103 - The take-off distance available is:
104 - What is the result of a large take-off flap setting compared to a small take-off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)?
105 - Considering VR, which statement is correct?
106 - A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:
107 - During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: -3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1; -2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
108 - Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights?
109 - If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:
110 - During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:
111 - Long range cruise is selected as
112 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
113 - Refer to Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure Given: OAT 24 °C; Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft; RWY 30R; Wind 060/04 KT; Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given?
question perf3.webp
114 - According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than:
115 - A higher outside air temperature (OAT):
116 - The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1. Gear up 2. Gear down 3. Wing flaps retracted 4. Wing flaps in take-off position 5. N engines at the take-off thrust 6. (N- 1) engines at the take-off thrust 7. Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8. Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9. Speed over the path equal to V2 10. At a height of 35 ft above the runway. The correct statements are:
117 - The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flap angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°; Runway limitation (kg): 66000 69500 71500; 2nd segment climb limitation: 72200 69000 61800; Wind correction: Headwind: +120 kg / KT Tailwind: -360 kg / KT; Given that the tailwind component is equal to 5 KT, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:
118 - Regarding take-off performance limitations, which of the following statements is correct?
119 - Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
120 - How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?
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