Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
EN angle-down

Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject New Test
1 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
2 - Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i)..... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii).... NM minimum from the threshold.
3 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
4 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
5 - Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
6 - The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
question nav13.webp
7 - In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
8 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
9 - Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
10 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
11 - The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
12 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
13 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
14 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
15 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
16 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
17 - In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
18 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
19 - The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
20 - In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
21 - Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
22 - What is the heading bug selected to?
question nav22.webp
23 - The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to:
24 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
25 - The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
26 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
27 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s)
28 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
29 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
30 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
31 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
32 - The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........
33 - What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes in Mode A?
34 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
35 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
36 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
37 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, ''All in View'' is a term used when a receiver:
38 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
39 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
40 - You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
41 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
42 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
43 - Which of the following equipments works on the interrogation/response principle?
44 - The indicated range from a DME station is:
45 - An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
46 - Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
47 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
48 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
49 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
50 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
51 - In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
52 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
53 - Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME system?
54 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
55 - Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
56 - Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
57 - A 3-D RNAV system has capability in:
58 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
59 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
60 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
61 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
62 - How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
63 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
64 - On an ILS approach, the localiser needle is fully over to the left. How much deflection does this indicate?
65 - Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E. Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
66 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
67 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
68 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
69 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
70 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
71 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
72 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
73 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
74 - In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
75 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
76 - In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:(Assume a beam width of 5°)
77 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
78 - What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
79 - What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
question nav13.webp
80 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
81 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
82 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
83 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
84 - An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:
85 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
86 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
87 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
88 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
89 - Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
90 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
91 - A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of:
92 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
93 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
94 - An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270°. At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30°E. At station Variation 28°E. Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft
95 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
96 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
97 - A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
98 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
99 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
question nav1.webp
100 - The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
101 - In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
102 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
103 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
104 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
105 - Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
106 - How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
107 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
108 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
109 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
110 - The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
111 - What is a practical advantage of the NAVSTAR/GPS 'All in View' receiver technique?
112 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
113 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
114 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
115 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
116 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
117 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
118 - Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
119 - Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
120 - Which facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
PRO
★★★★★ 4,8/5
Quizvds PRO
All Questions Included
Start Now
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free
Download mobile apps
Download mobile apps
© 2026 EGWeb di Guatta Mattia - VAT: 04768540983