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Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

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1 - At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
2 - In Mode A/C Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR), the transponder reply code is transmitted as a sequence of:
3 - The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
4 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
5 - In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
6 - Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
7 - A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
8 - What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
9 - How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
10 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
11 - GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
12 - A FMS with only a multiple DME sensor operating shall have a position error, 95% probability, in a non precision approach equal or less than:
13 - What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites?
14 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
15 - What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
16 - The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
17 - According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach?
18 - If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
19 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
20 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
21 - A MLS without DME-P provides:
22 - For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
23 - Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
24 - In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
25 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
26 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
27 - A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
28 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
29 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
30 - The middle marker transmits on:
31 - When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of:
32 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
33 - What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?
34 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
35 - Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
36 - A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
37 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
38 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
question nav1.webp
39 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
40 - A DME station is located 1000' above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
41 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
42 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
43 - A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
44 - Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
45 - The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 KT is approximately:
46 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
47 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
48 - Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
49 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
50 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
51 - Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
52 - What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
53 - A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
54 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
question nav1.webp
55 - What is a VDF referenced to?
56 - When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
57 - What does ADF stand for?
58 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
59 - The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
60 - A radio altimeter employing a continuous wave signal would have:
61 - Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained?
62 - In accordance with ICAO Annex 10 the NAVSTAR/GPS global average 95% position accuracy in SPS should be:
63 - What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
64 - Which frequency band includes the GPS L1 civil signal used by GNSS receivers?
65 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
66 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
67 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
68 - The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
69 - An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME indicates approximately:
70 - An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
71 - Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
72 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
73 - A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
74 - For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
75 - Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
76 - What is the aircraft track?
question nav2.webp
77 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
78 - In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
79 - If you are flying a back course ILS, you are flying a:
80 - In weather radar the use of a cosecant squared beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
81 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
82 - The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
83 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
84 - What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
85 - Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
86 - There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:
87 - Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
88 - The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
89 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
90 - Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
91 - An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
92 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
93 - In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by:
94 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
95 - An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
96 - In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
97 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
98 - Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
99 - According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
100 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
101 - An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
102 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
103 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
104 - Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
105 - The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
106 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
107 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
108 - What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?
109 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
110 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
111 - The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
112 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
question nav21.webp
113 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
114 - Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
115 - The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
116 - On which displays can the pilot read the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB directly, without calculation?
117 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
118 - Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
119 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
120 - In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver
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