Discover our new portal: your complete exam preparation, enhanced by AI
Login Start Now
Mobile menu MENU
fallback
EN angle-down

Exam simulation Radio Navigation - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license

Exam simulation ATPL Radio Navigation 120 questions on 120 minutes

Change Subject New Test
1 - If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:
2 - ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
3 - In what piece of FMS equipment will the pilot enter the waypoint information for the route?
4 - Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
5 - How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
6 - Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
7 - Which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
8 - Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
9 - What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
10 - Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
11 - An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with TO showing is:
12 - An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
13 - Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
14 - What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
15 - Under CS-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
16 - In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?
17 - False beams on the ILS glidepath are:
18 - Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
19 - Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
20 - The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
21 - The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
22 - How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
23 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
24 - Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
25 - ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
26 - Given: W/V (T) 230/20 KT, Var. 6E, TAS 80 KT What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon?
27 - If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
28 - Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
29 - The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
30 - Which statement is correct about GLONASS/ NAVSTAR GPS / GALILEO:
31 - In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
32 - Which of these markers has the highest audible frequency?
33 - What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?
34 - In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
35 - In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
36 - The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
question nav8.webp
37 - A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
38 - An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
39 - A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
40 - Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial reference system (IRS)?
41 - Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
42 - A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
43 - What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
44 - Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
45 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the:
46 - Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':
47 - What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?
48 - During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
49 - An aircraft at 6400' will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100' above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
50 - Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
51 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
52 - You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:
53 - The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
54 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
55 - In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325' above MSL?
56 - Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
57 - What drift is being experienced?
question nav10.webp
58 - The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
59 - On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
60 - Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
61 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
62 - What is EGNOS (European Global Navigation Overlay System)?
63 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:
64 - Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
65 - An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:
66 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
67 - Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates 'TO'. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
68 - The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
69 - Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar:
70 - In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
71 - Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
72 - Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?
73 - The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
74 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
75 - The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
76 - Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
77 - What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
78 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
79 - What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
80 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
question nav1.webp
81 - Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
82 - The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
83 - What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
84 - Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
85 - The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
86 - Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a 'TO' indication?
87 - 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
88 - A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
89 - Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
90 - In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
91 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
question nav6.webp
92 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
93 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
94 - DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
95 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
96 - The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
97 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (for example, wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
98 - An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
99 - Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
100 - A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
101 - GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation is now able to use:
102 - What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609' above MSL?
103 - How does a Mode S interrogator identify aircraft?
104 - The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
105 - The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
106 - The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
107 - Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
108 - What is the heading bug selected to?
question nav22.webp
109 - The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
110 - Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
111 - An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
112 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
question nav21.webp
113 - The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
114 - An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be:
115 - When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
116 - In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
117 - In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
118 - An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
119 - Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
120 - A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
PRO
★★★★★ 4,8/5
Quizvds PRO
All Questions Included
Start Now
Subscribe to Newsletter
Sign up, it's free
Download mobile apps
Download mobile apps
© 2026 EGWeb di Guatta Mattia - VAT: 04768540983